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Human Physiology

Description: This test will help the students to revise the topic thoroughly.
Number of Questions: 15
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Tags: Central nervous system The Defence Mechanism Immune System of Human Body Pregnancy and Parturation Parturition and Lactation Pregnancy and Parturition
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Differentiation of B-cells from hematopoietic stem cells is independent of

  1. Ikaros

  2. IL-3

  3. IL-7

  4. Pax5

  5. IL-8


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

IL-8 is a chemokine which mediates in chemotaxis and in the activation of neutrophils.

In a thymectomized organism, which of the following is irradiated and reconstituted with bone marrow cells?

  1. The T-lymphocyte population is not restored.

  2. The B-lymphocyte population is not restored.

  3. All lymphocyte populations are restored.

  4. None of the lymphocyte populations are restored.

  5. Rapid death inevitably follows.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Immature lymphocytes which are destined to become T-cells travel from the bone marrow to the thymus where they differentiate to immunocompetence and are educated to recognize peptides derived from foreign antigens presented by self MHC molecules. Thus in a thymectomized animal, this process cannot take place.

The phenomenon in which following successful Ig gene rearrangement, further rearrangement on the sister chromatid is suppressed, is termed as

  1. class switching

  2. productive rearrangement

  3. clonal selection

  4. allelic exclusion

  5. gene shuffling


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All of the immunoglobulin gene loci (heavy, kappa light, lambda light) exhibit allelic exclusion, as do all of the T-cell receptor gene loci, except the alpha chain. Thus, a B-cell is able to express only one light and one heavy chain specificity.

A young couple has been blessed with a baby boy. Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta to provide a high level of passive immunity at the time of parturition?

  1. IgA

  2. IgD

  3. IgE

  4. IgG

  5. IgM


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

IgG is the only class of immunoglobulin which is acquired by the neonate by placental transfer from the mother. This process is dependent upon Fc structures specific to this Ig class. The maternal IgG is catabolized with a half-life of approximately 23 days.

After medical examination, doctor confirmed that Mrs. Gupta is suffering from infectious anergy. In infectious anergy

  1. T-cells become deleted

  2. anergic T-cells indirectly suppress other T-cells

  3. CD80 on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated

  4. MHC class II on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated

  5. T-cells recognize antigen in the absence of antigen-presenting cells


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Clusters of responding T-cells surrounding an antigen-presenting cell mutually support activation and proliferation.

The immunoglobulin superfamily is a large group of cell surface and soluble proteins in humans. Which of the following molecules do not belong to the Ig gene superfamily?

  1. Immunoglobulin

  2. T-cell receptor

  3. LFA-1

  4. Beta2-microglobulin

  5. Thy-1


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

LFA-1 is a member of the integrin family, molecules concerned with leukocyte binding to endothelial cells and to extracellular matrix proteins. The VLA molecules are also members of the integrin superfamily.

An antigen is a substance which provokes an adaptive immune response in the body. The antigen moiety on an antigen-presenting cell identified by the alpha beta T-cell receptor is

  1. native protein antigen plus major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule

  2. processed (peptide) antigen plus MHC

  3. processed peptide antigen

  4. native antigen

  5. only MHC


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The peptide in the MHC groove is derived from intracellular proteins, either endogenous or exogenously derived.

Cytosol is the liquid found inside cells. The processing of cytosolic protein involves

  1. transport into late endosomes

  2. proteasome-mediated cleavage

  3. displacement of invariant chain

  4. displacement of beta2-microglobulin

  5. binding to the MHC class II groove


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The cytosolic proteins are cleaved to small peptides in the proteasome complex before they are transported by the TAP-1/2 molecules into the endoplasmic reticulum.

Immunoproteasome is a protease abundant in immune cells. Which of the following statements does not characterises the immunoproteasome?

  1. It is generated in response to interferon-gamma stimulation.

  2. It contains the nonpolymorphic MECL1 subunit.

  3. It contains the polymorphic LMP7 subunit.

  4. Ten per cent of the peptides generated are 8–9 residues in length.

  5. It exhibits both chymotrypsin-like and trypsin-like activities.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

About ten per cent of the peptides generated by the housekeeping proteasome are 8–9 residues in length, but the immunoproteasome is thought to be specialized to produce a greater proportion of peptides of this length which is optimal for insertion into the MHC class I groove.

Positive selection was first demonstrated in classic experiments using mice. In thymus, it is mediated by

  1. macrophages

  2. thymic epithelial cells

  3. dendritic cells

  4. B-cells

  5. T-cells


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Cortical epithelial cells may be relatively inefficient antigen processors and only deliver a weak signal which induces proliferation rather than deletion of immature thymocytes.

Acute inflammation usually occurs as an immediate response to trauma. It characteristically involves

  1. constriction of arterioles

  2. capillary endothelial cell enlargement

  3. influx of macrophages

  4. influx of mast cells

  5. influx of neutrophils


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Neutrophils are chemotactically attracted to the site of inflammation by C5a and mast cell chemotactic factors such as leukotriene B4.

A woman is having a twin pregnancy of 14 weeks' gestationtOne placenta and one separate amniotic sac are identified. In which one of the following scenarios is this most likely to arise?

  1. Ovulation induction

  2. ICSI with single embryo transfer

  3. Natural conception

  4. Family history of multiple pregnancy

  5. Maternal age 35–39 years


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

This increases the risk of monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins by 5 times;  the reasons for this are poorly understood.

Which one among the following pregnancies carries the greatest risk of an adverse outcome?  

  1. Singleton pregnancy

  2. Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA) twins

  3. Monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twins

  4. Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins

  5. Disappearing twin


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Pregnancies that share the placenta and amnion are at highest risk of adverse outcome because of risk of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome and cord entanglement.

Which of the following statements is true of the fetal circulation?

  1. 100% of the cardiac output goes to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.

  2. The arterial duct (ductus arteriosus) helps send oxygenated blood to the brain.

  3. Blood shunts across the duct ‘left to right’ (from the aorta to the pulmonary artery).

  4. The foramen ovale typically closes by 36 weeks' gestation.

  5. The umbilical vein carries well-oxygenated blood.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Unusually for a vein, the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the IVC via the ductus venosus. Umbilical cord pH is usually higher in the vein than in the artery.

Which one of the following is correct of congenital abnormalities in a developing foetus?

  1. Malformations in a developing foetus occur due to insults in the second or third trimester.

  2. An abnormal uterus or breech position does not cause limb abnormalities in a developing foetus.

  3. Deformities of the skull bones in a developing foetus are extremely rare and need urgent neurosurgical referral.

  4. Talipes equinovarus riverts best to early corrective surgery.

  5. Congenital anomaly in a developing foetus helps in the identification of a teratogenic source.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

It is important to monitor congenital abnormalities to understand their aetiology. Preconception folic acid supplementation to prevent spina bifida shows the benefit of recognizing high-risk groups.

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