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Sexual Reproduction

Description: This test will help the learning aspirants to revise one of the most important topics of biology namely sexual reproduction as it contains many questions from different sub topics of the topic sexual reproduction.
Number of Questions: 40
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Tags: Formation Of Embryo And Endosperm Invitro Fertilization In Vitro Fertilisation Menstrual Cycle Birth Control and Contraception Birth Control Methods Pregnancy and Parturation Parturition and Lactation Pregnancy and Parturition
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Who among the following got the Nobel Prize for the development of 'in vitro fertilisation'?

  1. Louise Brown

  2. Patrick Christopher Steptoe

  3. Adriana Iliescu

  4. Robert Edwards

  5. John Webster


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In 2010, Edwards was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of in vitro fertilisation.

In which of the following stages of development does the process of organogenesis takes place?

  1. The carnegie stage

  2. The uterine stage

  3. The fetal stage

  4. The germinal stage

  5. The embryonic stage


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

During the fetal stage, the process of organogenesis takes place.

Which of the following statements regarding IVF is incorrect?

  1. The fertilised egg is cultured for 2–6 days in a growth medium.

  2. IVF also assists in male infertility.

  3. The major complication of IVF is the risk of multiple births.

  4. In vitro fertilisation is usually performed in test tubes.

  5. Ovarian hyperstimulation induces development of multiple follicles of the ovaries.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In vitro fertilisation is usually performed in the shallow containers called petri dishes.

Which of the following contraceptives is not suitable for a heart patient?

  1. Oral contraceptives

  2. Contraceptive sponge

  3. IUCD

  4. Cervical cap

  5. Diaphragm


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Oral contraceptives are avoided in case of heart patients.

Which of the following statements regarding the methods of birth control is incorrect?

  1. Combination pills may reduce acne.

  2. The patch is changed monthly.

  3. There are birth control pills that are helpful for women who have migraines with their periods.

  4. The hormone implant is inserted under the skin on the inside of the upper arm.

  5. Combination hormonal methods contain both estrogen and progestin.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Patches or vaginal rings are similar to combination pills, but they don't require taking a daily pill. The patch is changed weekly and the ring is changed monthly.

Which of the following statements is false about the normal menstrual cycle in females?

  1. About once a month, the uterus grows a new lining to get ready for a fertilised egg.

  2. A drop in progesterone level causes the lining to break down.

  3. The menstrual cycle is from day 1 of bleeding to day 1 of the next bleeding.

  4. Estrogen builds up the lining of the uterus.

  5. Progesterone decreases after ovulation.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Progesterone increases after ovulation.

Which of the following parts of female reproductive tract accommodates various nerve endings for intuiting sexual pleasure?

  1. Labia minora

  2. Labia majora

  3. Clitoris

  4. Mons pubis

  5. Fallopian tubes


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Clitoris contains many nerve endings for sensing sexual pleasure.

Which of the following factors does not decrease the perinatal mortality rate?

  1. Improved antenatal care

  2. Lower social class

  3. Improved maternal health

  4. Prenatal care and counselling

  5. Maternal education


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Lower social class significantly increases the risk of perinatal mortality.

Which of the following cells of epididymis secretes carnitine, sialic acid and glycoproteins into the lumen in human males?

  1. Paradidymis

  2. Stereocilia

  3. Apical cells

  4. Basal cells

  5. Main cells


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

They secrete carnitine, sialic acid, glycoproteins and glycerylphosphorylcholine into the lumen.

Which of the following is true about congenital abnormalities seen in a newborn baby?

  1. Deformations are typically due to an insult in the first trimester whereas malformations occur due to insults in the second or third trimester.

  2. Congenital anomaly registers allow researchers to identify clusters of abnormality and may allow earlier identification of a teratogenic source.

  3. Deformities of the skull bones are extremely rare and need urgent neurosurgical referral.

  4. An abnormal uterus or breech position does not cause limb abnormalities.

  5. Talipes equinovarus responds best to early corrective surgery by an orthopaedic surgeon.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

It is important to monitor congenital abnormalities to understand their aetiology.

Which of the following pregnancies carries the highest risk of adverse outcome?

  1. Singleton pregnancy

  2. Dichorionic diamniotic twins

  3. Monochorionic diamniotic twins

  4. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

  5. Disappearing twin


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Pregnancies that share the placenta and amnion have the highest risk of adverse outcome.

Which of the following haploid nuclei fuses in mammals during the process of fertilisation to form zygote?

  1. Pronuclei

  2. Nucleoli

  3. Centrioles

  4. Chiasmata

  5. Homunculi


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The female pronucleus fuses with the male pronucleus to create the diploid nucleus of the zygote.

Which of the following statements regarding fertilisation in human beings is false?

  1. Semen passes through the urethra.

  2. Sperm swims towards the egg by chemotaxi.

  3. The male and female pronuclei move towards each other while duplicating their DNA in S phase.

  4. Fertilisation begins with the binding of sperm head to the glycoprotein coating of the egg.

  5. Follicle stimulating hormone opens catsper channels in the plasma membrane surrounding the anterior portion of the sperm tail.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Progesterone opens catsper ("cation sperm") channels.

Meissner's corpuscles are touch receptors located near the surface of skin. They are located at

  1. cumulus

  2. acrosome

  3. corona

  4. head

  5. foreskin


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

The foreskin contains sensory receptors called Meissner's corpuscles. These nerves provide pleasure and fine sensory perception.

Which part of the human penis is considered as mucocutaneous tissue?

  1. The frenulum

  2. The glans penis

  3. The ridged band

  4. The inner foreskin

  5. The outer foreskin


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The inner foreskin layer is a mucocutaneous tissue.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about an IUD?

  1. Women who have never been pregnant are more likely to expel IUD.

  2. Hormonal IUD keeps the lining of the uterus from growing very thick.

  3. Copper IUD makes the uterus and fallopian tubes produce fluid that kills sperms.

  4. IUD is inserted into the vagina.

  5. Both types of IUD prevent fertilisation of the egg.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

IUD is inserted into the uterus.

________ is associated with abdominal pain.

  1. Pubocervical ligament

  2. Uterosacral ligament

  3. Broad ligament

  4. Cardinal ligament

  5. Round ligament


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

It helps in maintaining the uterus in its position.

Which of the following helps in determining the sex of the offspring in mammals?

  1. Spermatogonium

  2. Secondary spermatocytes

  3. Primary spermatocytes

  4. Spermatozoon

  5. Spermatids


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In mammals, the sex of the offspring is determined by the sperm cell. A spermatozoon bearing a Y chromosome will lead to a male (XY) offspring, while one bearing an X chromosome will lead to a female (XX) offspring.

During the follicular phase, the dominant follicle arises in response to

  1. matrix-degrading proteases

  2. FSH

  3. hCG

  4. androgen precursors

  5. LH


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) causes maturation of a cohort of early-stage ovarian follicles.

Which of the following contraceptives is a combination of barrier and spermicidal methods?

  1. Cervical cap

  2. Contraceptive sponge

  3. Diaphragm

  4. Female condom

  5. FemCap


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The contraceptive sponge combines barrier and spermicidal methods to prevent conception.

The LH surge is primarily responsible for

  1. ovulation

  2. a decrease in PGF2α

  3. endometrial sloughing

  4. apoptosis

  5. an increase in prostaglandin


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The LH surge is primarily responsible for ovulation.

What is the most common site for implantation in ectopic pregnancy?

  1. Uterine tube

  2. Cervix

  3. Internal os of the uterus

  4. Mesentery

  5. Ovary


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The most common site of ectopic implantation is the uterine tube.

Which of the following layers of uterus helps to expel the placenta after delivery?

  1. Perimetrium

  2. Myometrium

  3. Peritoneum

  4. Parametrium

  5. Endometrium


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

After delivery, the myometrium contracts to expel the placenta.

During an erection, which of the following structures contains most of the blood in the penis?

  1. Corpus cavernosum

  2. Corpus spongiosum

  3. Radix

  4. Raphe

  5. Epithelium


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Corpus cavernosum contains most of the blood in the penis during an erection.

Which of the following hormones effectively suppresses lactation?

  1. Estrogen

  2. Prolactin

  3. Insulin

  4. Growth hormone

  5. Luteinising hormone


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Estrogen suppresses lactation.

Oxytocin and prostaglandins induce contractions and cause the cervix to dilate during ________ of labour in females.

  1. phase 1

  2. phase 2

  3. phase 3

  4. phase 4

  5. phase 5


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Oxytocin and prostaglandins induce contractions and cause the cervix to dilate during phase 2 of labour.

The physiological changes that commonly occur during menopause do not include

  1. increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

  2. increased oxytocin

  3. increased prostaglandins

  4. increased dopamine

  5. increased estradiol


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Estradiol levels decrease.

The ___________ twins are most susceptible to twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome.

  1. conjoined

  2. monoamniotic

  3. monochorionic-diamniotic

  4. dichorionic-diamniotic

  5. parasitic


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Monochorionic-diamniotic twins are almost always monozygotic.

Which of the following sexual pathogens is most likely to become resistant to antibiotics through plasmid-mediated mechanisms?

  1. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

  2. Chlamydia trachomatis

  3. Neiserria gonorrhoeae

  4. Treponema pallidum

  5. HCMV


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Gonococci develops resistance to antibiotics through plasma-mediated mechanisms.

Why do herpes virus infections recur?

  1. The virus is incapable of penetrating latex.

  2. The virus spreads first to autonomic nerves and then to the nerve root ganglia where it remains dormant for indeterminate periods of time.

  3. Primary HHV-6B infection usually occurs in adults and is the most common cause of fever-induced seizures.

  4. The virus remains dormant in the infected mucosal and skin cells for indeterminate periods of time.

  5. The virus inserts its DNA into host cell DNA and immortalises the cells.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Herpesvirus gains access to the human body via mucosal cells.

Which of the following statements is true regarding chlamydia?

  1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and chlamydia trachomatis can both result in neonatal eye infections.

  2. Infection with the lymphogranuloma (LGV) strain of chlamydia is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

  3. Antibiotic resistance is more common after infection with Chlamydia trachomatis than after infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

  4. Chlamydia trachomatis is a gram-negative diplococcus.

  5. In women, chlamydial infection usually affects clitoris and vagina.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Both gonorrhea and chlamydia can cause neonatal eye infections.

Which of the following characterises development as starting with the head and brain areas, and moving downward?

  1. Cephalocaudal development

  2. Critical development

  3. Progressive development

  4. Teratology development

  5. Proximodistal development


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Cephalocaudal development characterises development as starting with the head and brain areas, and moving downward.

The spontaneous movement of the foetus in the abdominal region is known as

  1. wriggle

  2. nesting

  3. fluttering

  4. kick count

  5. quickening


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Quickening is the early sign of foetus movement during pregnancy.

The membranous sac originating from the posterior part of the alimentary canal in the human embryo is

  1. blastocyst

  2. amnion

  3. chorion

  4. allantois

  5. trophoblast


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It is a membranous sac that develops from the posterior part of the alimentary canal in the embryo.

Which part of the uterus accommodates the growing embryo during pregnancy?

  1. Oviduct

  2. Cervix

  3. Perimetrium

  4. Myometrium

  5. Endometrium


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The cervix is the lower part of the uterus.

An ultrasound examination does not provide any information about

  1. ovulation

  2. date of delivery

  3. gestational age

  4. genetic disorder

  5. plenitude of gravidity


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A genetic disorder is an illness caused by abnormalities in genes or chromosomes.

Which of the following reflexes is related to feeding by a nursing mother?

  1. The grasp and sucking reflexes

  2. The gag and sucking reflexes

  3. The moro and sucking reflexes

  4. The rooting and sucking reflexes

  5. The moro and rooting reflexes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The sucking reflex is an automatic response.

_________ is capable of causing birth defects.

  1. Teratogen

  2. Cosmegen

  3. Trigen

  4. Carcinogen

  5. Zymogen


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A teratogen is defined as an agent capable of causing birth defects.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the progestin-containing IUD?

  1. The risk of ectopic pregnancy is greater for women with IUDs than for those using no form of contraception.

  2. The progestin disrupts endometrial maturation and creates an environment unfavourable for implantation.

  3. The IUD does not abort a successfully implanted pregnancy.

  4. It is associated with less bleeding than copper IUD.

  5. The ParaGard IUD can be used as emergency birth control.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The risk of ectopic pregnancy is not greater among women with IUDs.

What is the first milk produced by a woman in the first few days after delivery called?

  1. Bolus

  2. Fabulinus

  3. Urochrome

  4. Meconium

  5. Colostrum


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Colostrum is a form of milk produced by the mammary glands in late pregnancy and in the few days after delivery.

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