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Overview of Microorganisms (IUET)

Description: Influenza virus Rubella Adenovirus DNA viruses adenovirus parvovirus and poxvirus
Number of Questions: 20
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Tags: Influenza virus Rubella Adenovirus DNA viruses adenovirus parvovirus and poxvirus Five Kingdom Classification
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Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus is false?

  1. S. aureus is both a commensal bacterium and a pathogen.

  2. S. aureus can become resistant to flucloxacillin.

  3. S. aureus is an important cause of endocarditis.

  4. S. aureus is a gram-positive coccal bacterium.

  5. S. aureus is transmitted through air droplets or aerosol.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

S. aureus is an important cause of skin, bone and joint infections.

Which of the following bacteria is an important potential bioterrorism weapon?

  1. Listeria

  2. Bacillus anthracis

  3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  4. Enterococci

  5. Staphylococcus epidermidis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive aerobic bacillus.

Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is true?

  1. It is a complication of beta-haemolytic streptococcal infection.

  2. It only affects the elderly.

  3. It complicates 3% of acute sore throats.

  4. It shows no evidence of genetic susceptibility.

  5. It is caused by immediate hypersensitivity to streptococci.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

About 50% of patients have an identifiable sore throat or skin infection 1-5 weeks prior to systemic illness.

Epstein-Barr virus is NOT implicated in which of the following conditions?

  1. Infectious mononucleosis

  2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

  3. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia

  4. Burkitt's lymphoma

  5. Post-transplantation lymphoproliferative syndrome


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

This is not thought to be due to an infection but a relatively benign form of leukaemia in the elderly.

Antigenic variation is a major mechanism of passively evading the host immune surveillance. Which of the following microorganisms do(es) NOT use this mechanism?

  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

  2. Influenza A virus

  3. Borrelia recurrentis

  4. HIV

  5. Trypanosomes


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

There are at least 93 serotypes in the world.

Which of the following do(es) NOT predispose to superficial Candida albicans infection?

  1. Pregnancy

  2. Lymphoma

  3. Diabetes mellitus

  4. Vegetarian diet

  5. Broad-spectrum antibiotics


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

There is no evidence that this leads to excess Candida infections or to poor nutrition.

Which of the following statements regarding the cytokine profile of various diseases is true?

  1. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is associated with a predominant Th2 profile.

  2. Visceral leishmaniasis is associated with a good Th1 response.

  3. Tuberculoid leprosy is associated with a predominant Th2 profile.

  4. Lepromatous leprosy is associated with a predominant Th1 profile.

  5. Widespread disease in patients with Mycobacteria tuberculosis infection (miliary tuberculosis) is associated with a Th2 response.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Only a small proportion of infected individuals develop overt disease.

Which of the following statements about CMV is FALSE?

  1. Cytomegalovirus is a member of the retroviral group of viruses.

  2. Herpes viruses are DNA viruses.

  3. CMV can down regulate the host response.

  4. CMV is named for the large inclusion bodies in the nucleus of the infected cell.

  5. Primary CMV infection can be mild and similar to glandular fever.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

CMV is an example of a herpes virus.

Which of the following mechanisms does NOT help to clear Aspergillus spores from bronchial tree?

  1. Bronchial cilia

  2. Alveolar macrophages

  3. Engulfment by neutrophils

  4. Pulmonary dendritic cells taking up spores by coiling phagocytosis

  5. Stimulation of Th2 cells resulting in lytic antibody production


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Stimulation of Th1 cells resulting in interferon production provides a specific mechanism for removal of spores.

Which of the following statements about gram +ve bacteria is true?

  1. Gram +ve bacteria can be lysed by complement.

  2. They have a particularly thick outer carbohydrate capsule.

  3. Gram +ve bacteria are stained by crystal violet.

  4. They contain endotoxin.

  5. A gram-positive bacterium's cell wall consists of mainly glygozen.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Staining with crystal violet is the means by which bacteria have been classified historically.

The bacterium associated with pig handlers and fishermen is

  1. Chlamydia trachomatis

  2. Pasteurella multocida

  3. S. pyogenes

  4. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

  5. Streptococcus


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Erysipeloid is a zoonosis found in pig handlers and fishermen.

Dead Wuchereria bancrofti can cause

  1. Elephantiasis

  2. Erythema nodosum leprosum

  3. Serum sickness

  4. Pigeon fancier's disease

  5. Farmer's lung


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Dead filarial worm parasites in lymphatic vessels initiate an inflammatory reaction.

Which of the following bacteria colonises air conditioning systems and causes respiratory infections?

  1. Legionella pneumophila

  2. Helicobacter pylori

  3. Campylobacter

  4. Burkholderia pseudomallei

  5. Coxiella burnetii


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Legionella pneumophila is an environmental organism that can colonise air conditioning systems.

Which of the following types of patients are at particular risk of neisserial infection?

  1. Those with defective classical complement pathway components

  2. Those who have had their spleens removed

  3. Students in crowded dormitories

  4. Military personnel in barracks

  5. Those with final lytic pathway defects of complement


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Neisseria species are gram-negative bacteria included among the proteobacteria.

Septic shock associated with gram-negative bacteria is primarily due to

  1. enterotoxin superantigen

  2. lipopolysaccharide

  3. platelet aggregation

  4. switch off of cytokine release

  5. peptidoglycans


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Septicemia associated with gram-negative bacteria results primarily from excessive release of tumour necrosis factor.

‘Slapped cheek’ syndrome is associated with which of the following viruses?

  1. Cytomegalovirus

  2. Epstein–Barr virus

  3. Varicella zoster

  4. HHV-8

  5. HHV-6


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

HHV-6 causes a self-limiting erythematous infection.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can lead to which of the following diseases?

  1. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

  2. Agranulocytosis

  3. Cold hemagglutinin disease

  4. Thrombocytopenic purpura

  5. Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Patients with cold hemagglutinin disease have monoclonal anti-blood group I.

Which of the following bacteria spread(s) by unpasteurised milk in human beings?

  1. Haemophilus influenzae

  2. Brucella

  3. Francisella tularensis

  4. Yersinia pestis

  5. Bartonella


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Brucella are pathogens of animals that spread to humans through direct contact.

Individuals lacking C8 or C9 are more susceptible to get infected from which the following type of bacteria?

  1. Haemophilus influenzae

  2. Bacillus anthrax

  3. Vibrio cholerae

  4. Neisseria

  5. Listeria monocytogenes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The membrane attack complex containing C8 and C9 is important for destroying the Neisseria bacterium.

Specific immunity to M. tuberculosis in mice can be transferred to naive histocompatible recipients by

  1. B-cells

  2. T-cells

  3. macrophages

  4. neutrophils

  5. IgG


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

T-cells are important for immunity to M. tuberculosis.

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