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Legal and Regulatory Aspects of Bank - 1 (JAIIB)

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Shell bank refers to the

  1. the Foreign bank that does not have a branch in any country.

  2. financial institution that does not have a physical presence in any country.

  3. the Indian bank that has very small area covered

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Shell Bank refers to the financial institution that does not have a physical presence in any country.

Under the provisions of Right to Information Act, a public authority means any authority established

  1. by or under the Constitution of India

  2. by any other law made by the Parliament or State Legislature

  3. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate government

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

"Public authority" means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted (a) by or under the Constitution; (b) by any other law made by Parliament; (c) by any other law made by State Legislature; (d) by notification issued or order made by the appropriate government

Under Sale of Goods Act, if the sale is by description of goods, the goods shall correspond with the description. If these do not correspond with the description,

  1. the buyer has to buy the goods

  2. the seller has to supply the goods as per contract

  3. the buyer can reject the goods and claim back the payment

  4. Any of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Where there is a contract for the sale of goods by description, there is an implied condition that the goods shall correspond with the description; and, if the sale is by sample as well as by description, it is not sufficient that the bulk of the goods correspond with the sample if the goods do not also correspond with the description. Therefore, in that condition, the buyer can reject the goods and can claim back the payment.  

U/s 9 of Banking Regulation Act, a banking company can hold immovable property other than for its own use for a period of 7 years. But if the banking company fails to do so, RBI may extend this period by ____ years.

  1. 3

  2. 5

  3. 7

  4. Any period on merits of the case


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

No banking company shall hold any immova­ble property howsoever acquired, except such as is required for its own use, for any period exceeding seven years from the acqui­sition thereof or from the commencement of Banking Regulation Act. Provided further that the Reserve Bank may in any particular case extend the aforesaid period of seven years by such period not exceeding five years where it is satisfied that such extension would be in the interests of the depositors of the banking company.

Choose the correct statements:

(a) Foreign bank’s paid up capital and other funds should be minimum Rs. 15 lac in the form of deposit with RBI. (b) Foreign bank’s paid up capital and other funds would be Rs. 20 lac if the place of business is Mumbai or Kolkata or both (c) 20% of the foreign bank's profit is to be deposited with an Indian bank. (d) Central government can relax this condition of its own.

  1. All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. (a), (b) and (c)

  3. (a) and (b)

  4. (a) and (d)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under sub-section (2) of section 11 of the BR Act, a foreign bank operating in India has to deposit and keep deposited with the Reserve Bank, an amount of Rs. 15 lac and if it has a place of business in Mumbai or Kolkata or both, Rs. 20 lac. The amount has to be kept in cash, unencumbered approved securities or partially in both. Statements (c) and (d) are not true. 

Which of the following instructions have been issued by RBI u/s 35A of BR Act?

(a) KYC Guidelines (b) Clean Policy (c) Fraud Reporting (d) Ombudsman

  1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  2. (a), (b) and (c)

  3. (a), (b) and (d)

  4. (b), (c) and (d)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

RBI had announced ‘Clean Note Policy’ in January 1999, for withdrawing soiled notes from circulation and pumping fresh notes into circulation u/s 35A BR Act. Also, RBI notified the Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006 (on Dec 26, 2005) u/s 35A BR Act. KYC Guidelines were also introduced u/s 35A B R Act. Thus, only option 3 is correct.

The date of documents of a loan is January 25, 2006. The prescribed limitation period is three years. The suit can be filed latest by

  1. January 25, 2009

  2. January 24, 2009

  3. January 26, 2009

  4. January 27, 2009


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

If a suit is based on multiple causes of action, the period of limitation will begin to run from the date when the right to sue first accrues – successive violation of the right will not give rise to fresh cause and the suit will be liable to be dismissed if it is beyond the period of limitation counted from the day when the right to sue first accrued. Thus, if the limitation period is of 3 years and it started on January 25, 2006, we need to count it from the exact date for successive three years. Thus, it will be till January 25, 2009.

A banking company cannot be acquired by Central Government under which of the following conditions?

  1. Bank failed on more than one occasion to comply with RBI direction u/s 21 and 35 of BR Act.

  2. Bank is being managed in a manner detrimental to interest of depositors.

  3. Acquisition is essential for safeguarding interest of the depositors.

  4. Acquisition will benefit the shareholders and government both.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Reserve Bank shall, if it has been directed by the Cen­tral Government to cause an inspection to be made, and may, in any other case, report to the Central Government on any inspec­tion made under this section, and the Central Government, if it is of opinion after considering the report that the affairs of the banking company are being conducted to the detriment of the interests of its depositors. Also, option 4 is not true as acquisitions often result in a number of social benefits. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 

As per Sale of Goods Act, the unpaid seller of goods in possession of the goods, is entitled to retain the possession of the goods until payment of the price is made, in which of the following cases?

  1. If the goods have been sold without any stipulation as to credit

  2. If the goods have been sold on credit, but the term of credit has expired

  3. If the buyer becomes insolvent

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Subject to the provisions of this Act, the unpaid seller of goods who is in possession of them is entitled to retain possession of them until payment or tender of the price, (a) where the goods have been sold without any stipulation as to credit; or (b) where the goods have been sold on credit, but the term of credit has expired; or (c) where the buyer becomes insolvent. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The objective of enacting Banking Regulation Act was to

  1. regulate banking companies

  2. create banking system

  3. regulate acceptance of deposits from public

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms in India.The Act provides a framework using which commercial banking in India is supervised and regulated. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

For foreclosure of a mortgage, the limitation period is 12 years from the

  1. date of loan document

  2. date of mortgage

  3. date when the money secured by the mortgage becomes due

  4. any of the above dates, whichever is earlier


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Article 63(a) of Indian limitation act, 1963 provides a limitation period, in case of foreclosure of mortgaged property. The limitation period for filing a suit for sale of mortgaged property is twelve years from the date when the mortgage debt becomes due. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.  

In which of the following situations is the limitation period not of three years?

  1. Money payable for money lent

  2. On a promissory note

  3. On a mortgage

  4. On arrears of rent


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The limitation period on a mortgage is of 12 years and not 3 years. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer. 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Public sector banks have been created under a special statute.

  2. Banking companies are registered under BR Act.

  3. Subsidiaries of state bank are companies registered under Companies Act.

  4. Accepting deposits for safe custody falls under the definition of banking.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Companies like a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) are the companies registered under the Companies Act, 1956 not BR Act. Subsidiary banks are defined in the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Act, 1959 and not Companies Act. Accepting deposits for safe custody falls under banking regulation act. Thus, only option 1 is correct.

For specific performance of a contract, what is the limitation period?

  1. 1 year

  2. 2 years

  3. 3 years

  4. 12 years


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The period of limitation for a suit for specific performance of a contract is three years and the time of limitation starts to run from the date fixed for the performance, or, if no such date is fixed, when the plaintiff has notice that performance is refused.

Trading in shares of a bank at National Stock Exchange is regulated by

  1. Company Law Board

  2. Security Exchange Board of India

  3. Controller of Capital Issue

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority established under the SEBI Act, 1992 and is the principal regulator for Stock Exchanges in India. Thus, trading in shares of a bank at National Stock Exchange is regulated by this authority.

In which of the following cases shall the limitation period not get extended?

  1. Borrower’s agent deposited cash in the account within limitation period.

  2. Borrower acknowledged the liability in his balance sheet within the limitation period.

  3. Borrower acknowledged the liability by signing a letter after the limitation period.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The acknowledgement binds only those persons who have signed it. Thus, if borrower has acknowledged the liability by signing a letter after the limitation period, the limitation period shall not get extended.

Section 12 of Banking Regulation Act stipulates that the subscribed capital of a bank cannot be less than ___ % of its authorized capital and paid-up capital cannot be less than _____ % of the subscribed capital.

  1. 10%, 50%

  2. 25%, 25%

  3. 50%, 50%

  4. 50%, 10%


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under section 12 of Banking Regulation Act, no banking company shall carry on business in India, unless it satisfies the condition that the subscribed capital of the company is not less than one-half of the authorised capital and the paid-up capital is not less than one-half of the subscribed capital. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

As per provisions of Income Tax Act, 1961, the taxation of income of an assessee is not on which of the following bases?

  1. His place of source of income

  2. His residence

  3. Jurisdiction of the income tax authority

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Levy of tax is separate on each of the persons. The levy is governed by the Indian Income Tax Act, 1961 and the taxation of individual's income is dependent on income tax authority.

The income of a person called assessee is taxed on the basis of

  1. calendar year

  2. assessment year

  3. financial year

  4. any of the above, at the choice of the assessee


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

An entity whose income exceeds the "maximum amount", which is not chargeable to the income tax, is an assessee, and shall be chargeable to the income tax at the rate or rates prescribed under the finance act for the relevant assessment year. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

In a contract of sale,

(a) the seller transfers property in goods to the buyer for a price (b) the seller agrees to transfer property in goods to the buyer for a price (c) when the goods are transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract becomes a sale

  1. (a) and (c) are correct.

  2. (a) and (b) are correct.

  3. (b) and (c) are correct.

  4. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Property means the general property in goods, and not merely a special property and seller means a person who sells or agrees to sell goods to the buyer for a price. When the goods are transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract becomes a sale as "contract of sale" includes an agreement to sell as well as a sale. Thus, all the given statements are true.  

RBI can appoint a new director in a banking company in place of another director. The person so appointed shall continue to be in office

  1. for 3 years

  2. till the date up to which his predecessor would have held office

  3. till the date up to which RBI issues another order

  4. till the date the Board re–appoints him


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Every director elected under 'election of new directors', shall hold office until the date up to which his predecessor would have held office, if the election had not been held. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Returns relating to shareholding of the Chairman, Managing Director or Chief Executive Officer of every banking company are to be sent to

(a) RBI (b) SEBI (c) Registrar of Companies

  1. (a), (b) and (c) all

  2. (b) and (c) only

  3. (a) and (b) only

  4. neither (b) nor (c)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Every Chairman, Managing Director or Chief Executive Officer, by whatever name called, of a banking company shall furnish to the Reserve Bank through that banking company returns containing full particulars of the extent and value of his holding of shares. Thus, option 4 is correct.

X purchases a hot water bottle from Z, the retailer. On request of X, Z confirms that the bottle is meant to hold hot water. X is injured when hot water is put in the bottle and it bursts. Under Sale of Goods Act, this is a

  1. breach of condition

  2. breach of warranty

  3. breach of implied condition

  4. breach of implied warranty


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated. X demanded the bottle to be able to withhold the hot water, but it did not and thus, it didn't stand by the condition. Thus, option 1 is correct, i.e. breach of condition. 

Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched as per BR Act?

  1. License for opening of branch - Sec 23

  2. Payment of dividend - Sec 15

  3. Paid up capital and reserves - Sec 12

  4. Investment in shares of companies - Sec 19(2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Paid up capital and reserves is under Sec 11. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Banks are required to make deduction of tax at source but before that, they should have/obtain

  1. permanent account number (PAN)

  2. tax deduction account number (TAN)

  3. tax identification number (TIN)

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Tax Deduction Account Number or Tax Collection Account Number is a 10-digit alphanumeric number issued by the Income Tax Department (we will refer to it as TAN). TAN is to be obtained by all persons who are responsible for deducting tax at source (TDS) or who are required to collect tax at source.

Which of the following is not correct?

  1. Section 21 of Banking Regulation Act authorizes RBI to issue guidelines on credit by banks.

  2. Section 35-A of BR Act authorizes RBI to issue directives to banks in public interest.

  3. Section 26 of BR Act stipulates submission of loan related statements by bank to RBI.

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 26 of BR Act is about the ‘return of unclaimed deposits’. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

A borrower has an immovable property and he is not repaying the loan. The bank wants to recover the loan. Then, the bank can

  1. take possession of the security for the loan

  2. manage the same or appoint any person to manage the same

  3. sell or lease or assign the right over the security

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (also known as the SARFAESI Act) is an Indian law. It allows banks and other financial institutions to auction residential or commercial properties to recover loans. Bank may take recourse to one or more of the above measures.

Service tax is to be deposited by banks within

  1. 5 days of close of the month

  2. 7 days of close of the month

  3. 5 days of close of the month in case of electronic deposit and 6 days in case of manual deposit

  4. 6 days of close of the month in case of electronic deposit and 5 days in case of manual deposit


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The due date for payment of service tax is 6th day of the month following the relevant month/quarter, if electronically paid and in other cases, 5th day of the month following the relevant month/quarter. It is provided under section 75 of the Finance Act, 1994 that in case of delayed payments (after due date), the assessee is required to pay simple interest at the rate prescribed.

If a bank fails to maintain CRR as per Section 42 (1) of RBI,

(a) RBI can charge penal interest of 3% OBR for the first fortnight (b) 5% OBR is there for the next days (c) and the shortfall persist for 3rd fortnight also, then every director, manager or secretary of the bank is punishable with fine (d) RBI can impose penalty for non-maintenance or non-reporting which is required to be paid within 30 days from date of demand

  1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

  3. (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

  4. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(a) In case of default in maintenance of CRR requirement on a daily basis, penal interest will be recovered for that day at the rate of three per cent per annum above the Bank Rate on the amount by which the amount actually maintained falls short of the prescribed minimum on that day. (b) If the shortfall continues on the succeeding day(s), penal interest will be recovered at the rate of five per cent per annum above the Bank Rate. (c) In cases of default in maintenance of CRR on average basis during a fortnight, penal interest will be recovered as envisaged in sub-section (3) of section 42 of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Board for Financial Supervision of RBI

(a) is a committee established under RBI (BFS) Regulations (b) has jurisdiction over the banking companies, nationalized banks and State banks (c) is established with a view to supervise and inspect banks (d) holds meeting every month

  1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

  3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

  4. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Board of Financial Supervision (BFS) was constituted in November 1994 as a committee of the Central Board of Directors. Its objective is to undertake consolidated supervision of the financial sector comprising commercial banks, financial institutions and non-banking finance companies. The RBI carries out its functions related to financial supervision under the guidance of BFS. The Board normally holds meeting every month. Thus, all the options are correct.

Which of the following pairs does not match in the context of nomination provisions?

  1. Nomination in locker - Section 45 ZE to ZF

  2. Nomination in case of joint safe deposit of articles – only one nomination is allowed

  3. Nomination in deposit – insolvent or minor can be nominee

  4. Nomination in non-resident accounts – Permitted


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The nomination to be made by the depositor or, as the case may be, all the depositors together in respect of a deposit held by a co-operative bank to the credit of one or more individuals. Where the locker is hired from a co-operative bank by two or more individuals jointly, the nomination is to be made by such hirers. Thus, it is not limited to only one hirer. Therefore, option 2 is incorrect.

Under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme of RBI, the Ombudsman follows the procedure laid in the provision of

  1. Banking Regulation Act

  2. Arbitration and Conciliation Act

  3. RBI Act

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Banking Ombudsman, assuming the charge of an arbitrator, shall follow the procedure as laid down under the Scheme read with the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

RBI can cancel the registration of a Securitization Company, without giving opportunity to such company in certain circumstances. Which of these is not one among them?

  1. Company ceases to carry on business of securitization.

  2. Company ceases to hold any investment from qualified institutional buyers.

  3. Company fails to comply with directions of RBI.

  4. Cancellation without giving opportunity cannot be done, as it is illegal.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A securitization company or reconstruction company aggrieved by the order of cancellation of certificate of registration may prefer an appeal, within a period of thirty days from the date on which such order of cancellation is communicated to it, to the Central Government provided that before rejecting an appeal, such company shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard as cancellation without giving opportunity is not licit.

Cenvat credit can be availed of in respect of tax paid on

  1. certain specified services

  2. certain specified input services

  3. all input services

  4. all services


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Excise duty paid on input goods, service tax paid on input services and excise duty paid on capital goods make them eligible for Cenvat Credit. Thus, option 2 is correct.

If the provisions of Transfer of Property Act and SARFAESI Act relating to an immovable property are different,

  1. provisions of Transfer of Property Act would prevail

  2. provisions of SARFAESI Act would prevail

  3. provisions of Transfer of Property Act or SARFAESI Act would prevail at the discretion of the creditor

  4. provisions of Transfer of Property Act or SARFAESI Act would prevail at the discretion of the debtor


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The provisions of the SARFAESI Act will prevail in case of any conflict and inconsistency of any provision therein with any provisions of the Transfer of Property Act and the CPC. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Lok Adalt is organized by

  1. state authority or district authority

  2. supreme court legal services committee

  3. high court legal services committee

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The state authority or district authority, supreme court legal services committee, high court legal services committee and taluk legal services committee can organize Lok Adalts.

Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to a Securitization Company under SARFAESI Act?

  1. It is a company registered with Registrar of Companies.

  2. It requires registration with Reserve bank for conducting securitization business.

  3. It can set up separate trusts, for separate securitization transactions.

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It is an Act to regulate securitization and reconstruction of financial assets, enforcement of security interest, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It need not to be registered with the Companies Act.

If a case is referred to Lok Adalt and there is no settlement of the case,

  1. the case shall be dismissed

  2. the case shall be decided in due course of time

  3. the case shall be remitted back to the court that referred the matter to Lok Adalt

  4. Any of the above, at discretion of the Lok Adalt


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

If no settlement is there, the case shall be remitted back to the court which referred the matter to Lok Adalt. In case of potential court case, Lok Adalt shall advise the parties to seek remedy in court.

A normal Lok Adalt (other than organized by DRT) can entertain disputes involving

  1. up to Rs. 20 lac

  2. up to Rs. 15 lac

  3. up to Rs. 10 lac

  4. up to Rs. 5 lac


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

RBI, during April 2001, advised banks and financial institutions that cases involving an amount up to Rs. 20 lac (RBI enhanced it from Rs. 5 lac, Aug 03, 2004) may be referred to Lok Adalts.

When a securitization company issues a security receipt that is purchased by qualified institutional buyers,

  1. it requires registration with Registrar of Companies

  2. it requires registration with Central Registry

  3. it requires registration with Registrar of Assurances

  4. it does not require any registration


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

"Security receipt" means a receipt or other security, issued by a securitization company or reconstruction company to any qualified institutional buyer pursuant to a scheme, evidencing the purchase or acquisition by the holder thereof, of an undivided right, title or interest in the financial asset involved in securitization. Thus, in that case, it does not require any registration.

To ensure that the banks are maintaining SLR, RBI calls for a monthly return from banks, which is to be submitted by banks within ____ of close of the month.

  1. 7 days

  2. 10 days

  3. 15 days

  4. 20 days


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For ensuring compliance with the provisions, a banking company shall furnish to RBI, not later than 20 days after the close of the month, a monthly return, showing particulars of its Liquid Assets maintained and its Demand and Time Liabilities at close of business of each alternate Friday during the month.

Disputes arising in cases under SARFAESI Act can be referred to which of the following?

  1. Lok Adalt

  2. District Courts and High Courts

  3. DRT and DRAT

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

DRT - Debts Recovery Tribunal or DRAT - Debts Recovery Appellate Tribunal. The borrowers, in many cases, continue having negotiations with the Bank Officials and it will consume a lot of time. It is only when the borrowers feel that they may not get their dispute or grievance settled with the Bank, that they will approach the Tribunal or the Courts.

What is the full form of FEMA?

  1. Federal Exchange Management Act

  2. Foreign Exchange Management Act

  3. Financial Exchange Management Act

  4. Financial Exchange and Monetary Act


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of India "to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign exchange".

A transaction that results in change in asset or liability position outside India of a person resident in India or position in India of a person resident abroad is called

  1. current account transaction

  2. balance of payment

  3. capital account transaction

  4. trade balance


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Capital account transaction is defined as a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of persons resident in India. In other words, it includes those transactions which are undertaken by a resident of India such that his/her assets or liabilities outside India are altered (either increased or decreased).

The additional directors in a company appointed by the Board of Directors by passing a resolution, can remain in office

  1. as per the term fixed in their appointment by the board

  2. up to the date of next annual general meeting

  3. for one year at the maximum

  4. for 6 months at the maximum


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Additional Directors are appointed by the Board between the two annual general meetings subject to the provisions of the Articles of Association of a company. Additional Directors shall hold office only up to the date of the next annual general meeting of the company.

If the court where the suit is field is closed on the date of expiry of limitation, the suit

  1. can be filed a day before

  2. cannot be filed at all

  3. can be filed on first day of re-opening of the court

  4. can be filed at the discretion of the court


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Where the period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day that the court re-opens.

Section 43A of Banking Regulation Act deals with

  1. notification of rules for preservation of records

  2. rules governing nomination

  3. voluntary winding up of a banking company

  4. preferential payments on liquidation of a bank


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 43A of Banking Regulation Act deals with preferential payments to depositors on liquidation of a bank.

The Banking Laws (Application to Cooperative Societies) Act, 1965 extends certain provisions of

(a) Companies Act, 1956 (b) Banking Regulation Act

  1. (a) and (b) both

  2. (a) only

  3. (b) only

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all banking firms in India. Companies Act enables companies to be formed by registration, and set out the responsibilities of companies, their directors and secretaries. 

A popular bank makes payment to Y, of a bearer crossed cheque across the counter. The cheque is drawn in favour of X. In this case,

  1. the bank is liable to the drawer for a wrongful payment

  2. being a bearer cheque, the bank can make cash payment to anyone

  3. the bank is liable to X, the true owner

  4. the bank is liable both to the drawer and the true owner


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bank is always liable to the person whomsoever the check is favourable to, not the bearer. Thus, in the given case, the bank is liable to X. 

As per Sale of Goods Act, the seller of goods is deemed to be unpaid seller, when the _____ has/have not been paid.

  1. interest

  2. price

  3. penalty

  4. damages


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The seller of goods is deemed to be an “unpaid seller”, when the whole of the price has not been paid or tendered or when a bill of exchange or other negotiable instrument has been received as conditional payment, and the condition on which it was received has not been fulfilled by reason of the dishonour of the instrument or otherwise. Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Which of the following are not a current account transaction?

  1. Payments due as interests on loans

  2. Export and import of goods account services

  3. Expenses incurred in connection with travel abroad

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

'Current account transaction' is a transaction other than a capital account transaction and such transaction includes payments due in connection with foreign trade, interest on loans and foreign travel, education and medical care of parents, spouse and children. 

The general superintendence and direction of the RBI is entrusted with

  1. 3 Finance Ministry representatives

  2. 2 Finance Ministry representatives

  3. a panel of Finance Ministry representatives

  4. 1 Finance Ministry representative


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

RBI is entrusted with the 21-member Central Board of Directors: the Governor, 4 Deputy Governors, 2 Finance Ministry representatives, and 10 government-nominated directors to represent important elements from India's economy, and 4 directors to represent local boards.

As per Limitation Act, 1963, if a suit is filed after the expiry period of limitation,

  1. it shall be entertained at the discretion of the court

  2. it can be filed as a matter of right, if the case is genuine

  3. it shall be dismissed by the court

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

If the Suit or Appeal is not filed within the stipulated time period, then this provision is not applicable to get an extension of time period for filing the same. Thus, it tends to be dismissed by the court.

Under the provisions of Section 22 of RBI Act,

  1. RBI regulates the banks

  2. RBI conducts government business

  3. RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India

  4. RBI issues note refund rules


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 22 of the RBI Act 1934 makes provided that RBI has the sole right to issue bank notes of all denominations. Thus, Reserve Bank is responsible for the design, production and overall management of the nation’s currency, with the goal of ensuring an adequate supply of clean and genuine notes.

As per FEMA 1999, an office or a branch or an agency in India that is owned and controlled by a person resident outside India, falls under the category of

  1. non-resident persons

  2. persons resident in India

  3. foreigners

  4. foreign companies


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

An office or branch or an agency in India that is owned and controlled by a person resident outside India, falls under the category of persons resident in India.

Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. Clean bill - where the bill is not supported by any document of title to goods

  2. Supply bill - where the bill is drawn on the basis of transaction with the government

  3. Accommodation bill - a bill which is drawn without any consideration or without any sale or purchase of goods

  4. Foreign bill - a bill which is drawn in India and payable in India only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Foreign bill is a payment drawn up in one country that is payable in another country. An example of a foreign bill of exchange is an agreement drawn up between two countries for trading purposes.

When foreign exchange is brought to India and sold to an authorized person, as per FEMA 1999, it is called

  1. Repatriation

  2. Repatriation from India

  3. Repatriation to India

  4. Expatriation


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

“Repatriation to India” means bringing into India the realised foreign exchange and the selling of such foreign exchange to an authorised person in India in exchange for rupees, or the holding of realised amount in an account with an authorised person in India to the extent notified by the Reserve Bank. Thus, option 3 is correct. 

Which of the following groups can be a partner in a Limited Liability Partnership?

  1. Company incorporated in and outside India

  2. LLP incorporated in and outside India

  3. Individuals residing in and outside India

  4. Any individual person, an LLP or a company


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All of the above can be partners in LLP. 

A pledge is bailment of goods to secure a loan. The goods are delivered by the owner to the creditor. These parties as per Section 172 of Indian Contract Act are called

  1. bailor and bailee

  2. bailee and bailor

  3. pledger and pledgee

  4. pawner and pawnee


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As per Section 172 of Indian Contract Act, the bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called "pledge". The bailor is in this case called the "pawner". The bailee is called the "pawnee".

Which of the following is not correct with regard to a deferred payment guarantee?

  1. Guarantee is issued normally for purchase of capital assets on long term credit from the supplier.

  2. Guarantee is issued in lieu of term loan and appraisal is also done like a term loan.

  3. Difference between TL and such guarantee is of outlay of funds.

  4. This is a payment guarantee issued to your importer for deferred or timely receiving of the goods.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

This is a payment guarantee issued to your exporter for deferred or timely payment of the goods, and corresponding interest.

X appointed Y as his agent to operate his account and route business transactions through Y’s personal account also. Y misappropriated the proceeds of a cheque in the name of X but deposited them in his personal account. X sends notice to the bank for negligence and conversion.

  1. The bank is liable for the conversion as Y has done something that bank should not have apparently.

  2. The bank is liable since it is a case of conversion.

  3. The bank is not liable because X had given specific authority to Y to use his personal account also.

  4. The bank is not liable because for agent’s action, the principal is liable.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The bank is not liable because X had given specific authority to Y to use his personal account also.

Bank X gives a bank guarantee on behalf of one of its customers against some payment to be deposited by the customer in a pending court case. Such guarantee can be classified as

(a) financial guarantee (b) performance guarantee (c) deferred payment guarantee (d) statutory guarantee

  1. (a) or (d)

  2. (a) only

  3. (d) only

  4. (b) or (c)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In case the bank guarantees on behalf of one of its customers against some payment to be deposited by the customer in a pending court case, such guarantees are classified under statutory guarantees. 

As per FEMA 1999, the term foreign exchange does not include which of the following?

  1. Amount payable in foreign currency

  2. DD drawn in Indian currency but payable in foreign currency

  3. DD drawn abroad but payable in Indian currency

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The legal framework for administration of exchange control in India is provided by the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Under the Act, freedom has been granted for buying and selling of foreign exchange for undertaking current account transactions. The act involves all the three options, so option 4 is the correct answer.

For a securitization company, which of the following conditions is applicable for their capital and capital adequacy ratio?

  1. Minimum capital of Rs. 200 cr and capital adequacy ratio of 15% of the financial assets acquired by the company

  2. Minimum capital of Rs. 100 cr and capital adequacy ratio of 15% of the financial assets acquired by the company

  3. Minimum capital of Rs. 100 cr and capital adequacy ratio of 10% of the financial assets acquired by the company

  4. Minimum capital of Rs. 200 cr and capital adequacy ratio of 10% of the financial assets acquired by the company


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Every Securitization Company or Reconstruction Company shall maintain, on an ongoing basis, a capital adequacy ratio, which shall not be less than fifteen percent of its total risk weighted assets and minimum capital of Rs. 100 cr.

To enable the beneficiary to rely on the authenticity and genuineness of the LC, the letter of credit is received by the beneficiary

  1. through advising bank

  2. directly from the issuing bank

  3. from negotiating bank, which is to make payment also

  4. through confirming bank to make sure that payment would be definitely received


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Advising bank advises the letter of credit to the exporter at the request of the issuing bank. Advising banks act upon issuing bank's request advising the letters of credit to the beneficiaries. Once the letter of credit is issued, it must be conveyed to the importer.

In an LC, the documents are to be negotiated in the beginning of September, which means that documents can be presented for negotiation during

  1. first week

  2. first two days

  3. 1st to 10th of the month

  4. 1st to 15th of the month


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Documents can be presented for negotiation during first 10 days of the month.

A security interest created under SARFAESI Act requiring registration with Central Registry with a period of

  1. 15 days

  2. 30 days

  3. 45 days

  4. 60 days


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

"Central Registry" means the registry set up or cause to be set up under sub-section (1) of section 20. The particulars of every transaction of securitisation, asset reconstruction or creation of security interest shall be filed, with the Central Registrar in the manner and on payment of such fee as may be prescribed, within thirty days after the date of such transaction or creation of security, by the securitisation company or reconstruction company or the secured creditor.

If a bill of exchange is dishonoured,

(a) the drawer is liable to the holder (b) the drawer’s liability is secondary if it is accepted (c) the drawer’s liability is primary when it has not been accepted (d) the drawee is liable whether he accepts the bill or not in all circumstances

  1. (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. (a), (b) and (d) only

  3. (b), (c) and (d) only

  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

It was held that until the bill has been accepted, the drawer is the principal debtor and after acceptance, the drawee or acceptor is the principal debtor and the drawer becomes secondarily liable.

If there is a contravention of provisions of FEMA 1999 by a person and the amount is not quantifiable, penalty can be levied

  1. up to Rs. 2 lac

  2. up to the amount involved in such contravention

  3. up to two times of amount involved in such contravention

  4. up to thrice the amount involved in such contravention


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

If any person contravenes any provision of this Act, or contravenes any rule, regulation, notification, direction or order issued in exercise of the powers under this Act, or contravenes any condition subject to which an authorization is issued by the Reserve Bank, he shall, upon adjudication, be liable to a penalty up to thrice the sum involved in such contravention where such amount is quantifiable, or up to two lakh rupees where the amount is not quantifiable, and where such contravention is a continuing one, further penalty which may extend to five thousand rupees for every day after the first day during which the contravention continues.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Pawner must disclose any material faults or extraordinary risks in the goods.

  2. If in case pawnor does not disclose the faults, the pawnor is liable for the loss caused to pawnee.

  3. The expenses incurred for the preservation of goods will be born by the pawnee.

  4. When the goods are pledged, there is implied condition that the pawner has title to the pledged goods.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The pawner must reimburse for any expenses incurred to the preservation of the goods. 

For opening an account of a company, under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which of the following documents is not mandatory?

  1. Officially valid document in respect of person to operate the account

  2. Certificate of Incorporation and Resolution from Board of Directors

  3. Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For opening an account of a company, under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, all the documents listed in the options are required. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

(a) An equity share is a share which is not a preference share. (b) A preference share is one which gets regular dividend irrespective of profit position and preference in case of liquidation. (c) Debenture is a document by which a company acknowledges its indebtedness. (d) Trust receipt is a document that is an undertaking by the borrower when the goods are released by the bank to the borrower without payment being made by the borrower.

  1. (a) to (d) are correct.

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

  3. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Preference share is a share which entitles the holder to a fixed dividend, whose payment takes priority over that of ordinary share dividends. Thus, the given definition is not true.

When the sellers sell the goods to government or public sector undertakings, the transaction is covered through

  1. bills discounting

  2. bills purchasing

  3. supply bills

  4. documentary bills


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A supply bill authorizes the expenditure of funds on government activities for the whole or part of the financial year. It is introduced by the government as part of parliament's involvement in the raising and spending of public funds.

If a banking company is found to be not complying with the requirement of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the Director can impose a fine of

  1. Rs. 10000

  2. Rs. 20000

  3. minimum Rs. 10000 and maximum Rs. 1 lac

  4. minimum Rs. 10000 and maximum Rs. 5 lac


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

If a banking company is found to be not complying with the requirement of PMLA Act 2002, the Director can impose a fine of minimum Rs. 10000 and maximum Rs. 5 lac.

What is/are the function(s) of the private key, out of the pair of keys used in an electronic signature?

  1. To create an electronic signature

  2. To verify an electronic signature

  3. To create and verify an electronic signature

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The private key is used to encrypt the hash. The encrypted hash along with other information, such as the hashing algorithm, is the digital signature. Thus, it helps in creating the electronic signature.

Director under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 is appointed by

  1. Reserve Bank of India

  2. Financial Intelligence Unit, India

  3. Government of India

  4. Security and Exchange Board of India


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Director under PML Act 2002 is appointed by Government of India.

CIP stands for

  1. Consumer Identification Procedure

  2. Customer Identification Parameters

  3. Customer Identification Planning

  4. Customer Identification Procedure


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Customer identification means identifying the customer and verifying his/her identity by using reliable, independent source documents, data or information.

SARFAESI Act is applicable in case of

(a) all securities (b) securities where security interest is created for repayment of the loans (c) all securities except agricultural land (d) all loans except agricultural loans

  1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

  3. (b) and (c) are correct.

  4. (a), (c) and (d) are not correct.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

SARFAESI is effective only for secured loans where bank can enforce the underlying security, e.g. hypothecation, pledge and mortgages. In such cases, court intervention is not necessary, unless the security is invalid or fraudulent. Any security interest created over agricultural land cannot be proceeded. SARFAESI Act is applicable in case of securities where security interest is created for repayment of the loans by any borrower. Thus, option 4 is the answer.  

For a securitization company, when the financial asset is purchased, which of the following is not true?

  1. The company has to formulate a realization plan within 12 months.

  2. Account will be standard account during this plan period, after which it will be NPA after 90 day delinquency period.

  3. Account will be sub-standard assets for a maximum of 12 months.

  4. When the asset is acquired for reconstruction, there is a limit of 10 years for such reconstruction.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It has been prescribed that the plan of realisation of assets shall not exceed five years from the date of acquisition of asset. Thus, option 4 gives the wrong information.

Under Right to Information Act, the information can be obtained in the form of

  1. diskettes or floppies

  2. tapes and video cassettes or any other electronic mode

  3. printouts

  4. Any of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A citizen has a right to obtain information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in any other electronic mode or through printout provided information is already stored in a computer or in any other device from which the information may be transferred to diskettes.

Under Contract Act, a minor is considered a person who is

  1. 17 years old

  2. 18 years old

  3. less than 17 years of age

  4. Both 1 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A minor is a person whose age is below 18 years. 

If the service provider fails to comply with the order of a District Forum under the Consumer Protection Act, punishment can be

  1. fine up to Rs. 10000 and imprisonment up to 3 years

  2. fine up to Rs. 10000 and imprisonment up to 2 years

  3. fine up to Rs. 5000 and imprisonment up to 3 years

  4. fine up to Rs. 1000 and imprisonment up to 1 year


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

If any person fails or omits to comply with the order of a Forum, he may be punished with imprisonment up to three years (section 27 of the Act) or with fine of Rs. 2000, which may extend to Rs. 10000 or both.

When a bill is discounted through bank, which of the following conditions is correct?

  1. The bank will not get the title of holder in due course.

  2. The bank will become the payee.

  3. The bank will receive the amount after deducting the interest charged by the bank at the time of discounting the bill.

  4. The bank will become the drawer.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The bank will get the title of holder in due course, the bank will become the payee and not the drawer. The bank will receive the full payment, no amount as interest will be deducted. 

Under SARFAESI Act, the Central Registrar shall register all of the following types of transactions, except

  1. securitization of financial assets

  2. reconstruction of financial assets

  3. creation of security assets

  4. sale of financial assets


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Central Government has issued the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (Central Registry) Rules, 2011 and prescribed the forms to be used for the purpose of filing information for registration in respect of transactions of securitization, asset reconstruction of financial assets and security interest over property. Thus, it doesn't deal with sale of financial assets.

Under provisions of Right to Information Act, the person requesting for information has to pay the prescribed fee, which can be in the form of all of the following, except

  1. cash against proper receipt

  2. cheque from the account of the information seeker

  3. demand draft or bankers’ cheque

  4. Indian postal order


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The person requesting for information has to pay the prescribed fee, which cannot be in the form of cheque, be it from the account of the information seeker.

Which of the following is not a type of mortgage?

  1. Simple mortgage

  2. Equitable mortgage

  3. English mortgage

  4. Absolute mortgage


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Absolute mortgage is not a type of mortgage.

As per Information Technology Act, 2000, the penalty for damage to computers, computer systems etc. has been fixed for damages up to ____ by way of compensation to affected person.

  1. Rs. 1 lac

  2. Rs. 10 lac

  3. Rs. 100 lac

  4. Rs. 1000 lac


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option 3 is correct.

The constitutional validity of Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act was questioned before the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

  1. Transcore vs Union of India

  2. Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India

  3. Mardurai Chemicals vs Union of India

  4. Marshal Chemicals vs ICICI Bank


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Effective implementation of the SARFAESI Act was delayed by more than two years because several writ petitions were filed in the High Courts. The matter was finally decided by this Court in Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India (2004) 4 SCC311 and the validity of the SARFAESI Act was upheld except the condition of deposit of 75% amount enshrined in Section 17(2).

Bank B failed to file an appeal against DRT order to DRAT within the mandatory 45 day period. Which of the following remedies is available?

  1. The bank has no option except to follow the decree passed by DRT.

  2. The bank can make a request to DRT to extend the period, which it can consider.

  3. The bank can request DRAT explaining the circumstances and if satisfied, DRAT may permit the bank.

  4. The bank can request high court which has the authority to permit the bank.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The bank can request DRAT explaining the circumstances and if satisfied, DRAT may permit the bank.

The Information Technology Act was introduced in India on the initiative of which of the following?

  1. Reserve Bank

  2. Information Technology Ministry

  3. UN Commission on International Trade Law

  4. Parliament of India


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

United Nation Commission on International Trade Law introduced The Information Technology Act, 2000.

Spurious goods and services mean

  1. goods and services which are claimed to be genuine but are not

  2. goods or services which are genuine and claimed to be genuine

  3. counterfeit products

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Spurious goods or services are those which are genuine and claimed to be genuine.

Under Right to Information Act, the public information officer can be departmentally proceeded against under certain circumstances, on the recommendations of

  1. Reserve Bank

  2. Public Authority

  3. Central Information Commission

  4. Central Government


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Central Information Commission (CIC) set up under the Right to Information Act is the authorised body, established in 2005, under the Government of India to act upon complaints.

If appeal is to be made by the liable party to the next court, under Consumer Protection Act, it can be made within ____ days of ______ by depositing ____ of the amount of decree, with varying maximum amount.

  1. 15, date of order, 50%

  2. 30, date of order, 50%

  3. 30, date of order, 75%

  4. 30, date of receipt of order, 50%


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

If appeal is to be made by the liable party to the next court, under Consumer Protection Act, it can be made within thirty days of date of order by depositing half of the amount of decree, with varying maximum amount.

To create an agency, the consideration required is

  1. 25290

  2. 26000

  3. 50000

  4. No consideration at all


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

To create an agency, no consideration is required.

Mr. Ashok Kumar issues a power of attorney in favour of Mr. Amit Kumar on July 31, 2006 and dies on December 03, 2006. Your branch receives (on Dec 26, 2006) through clearing house, two cheques, signed by Mr. Amit Kumar, on June 12, 2006. Which cheque(s) will be paid?

  1. Both of the cheques will be paid, if there is balance in the account.

  2. Both of the cheques will be returned.

  3. Cheque signed by Mr. Ashok Kumar will be paid as the cheque was signed before death.

  4. Cheque signed by Mr. Amit Kumar will be paid as he is alive.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Both of the cheques will be returned because both the cheques are signed by Amit Kumar before the Power of Attorney was transferred. 

Lien of unpaid seller is terminated when

  1. the buyer gets possession of the goods

  2. the seller gets possession of the goods

  3. the buyer leaves the possession of the goods

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The unpaid seller of goods loses his lien or right of retention thereon – (a) when he delivers the goods to a carrier or other bailee or custodier for the purpose of transmission to the buyer without reserving the right of disposal of the goods; (b) when the buyer or his agent lawfully obtains possession of the goods; or (c) by waiver thereof. 

Implied authority of the partner can be used by him in which of the following circumstances?

  1. Withdraw a suit pending in a court

  2. Acquire a transfer of immovable property on behalf of the firm

  3. Open bank account on behalf of the firm in his own name

  4. Appoint agent with the consent of the other partners


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Implied authority, also known as “usual authority”, is the authority of an agent acting on behalf of another person or entity. The person acting with implied authority does what is reasonably necessary in order to effectively perform his duties. The acts undertaken surrounding the use of implied authority depend on the circumstances and the case. Thus, in case of implied authority of the partner, one can appoint agent with the consent of the other partners. 

In an agreement to sell, the risk of goods is

  1. with the buyer

  2. with the seller

  3. with the buyer or seller at their discretion

  4. with the buyer, if payment is made, and with the seller, if payment is not made


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In implied condition on the part of the seller, in the case of a sale, the seller has a right to sell the goods, and in the case of an agreement to sell, the seller will have a right to sell the goods at the time when the property is to pass.

A power of attorney is given on Jan 1, 2016 by X to Y. Y signed 3 cheques dated as Dec 25, 2015, Jan 12, 2016 and Jan 31, 2016. On Jan 17, 2006, his authority is cancelled by X. Cheques are presented for payment on Jan 31, 2006.

  1. Cheque dated Dec 25 and Jan 12 shall be paid.

  2. Cheque dated Jan 12 and Jan 31 shall be paid.

  3. Cheque dated Dec 25 and Jan 12 shall be returned.

  4. All the cheques would be paid.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Only the cheques which are signed after the power of attorney has been transferred will be acceptable.

Which of the following mortgages does not require registration with Registrar of Assurances?

  1. Equitable mortgage

  2. English mortgage

  3. Usufructuary mortgage

  4. Simple mortgage


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Most mortgages need registration. However, a mortgage created by depositing of title deeds (also known as equitable mortgage) is not compulsorily registrable.

District Forum has passed an order to pay compensation. How is the recovery of the ordered amount made?

  1. By filing execution in Civil Court

  2. By filing execution before District Forum

  3. By filing Civil Suit

  4. By referring the order to collector for making recovery as if it is land revenue recovery


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For the said purpose, the District Forum/State Commission/National Commission has to issue a certificate for the said amount to the Collector of the District and the Collector shall proceed to recover the amount in the same manner as arrears of land revenue.

A person who makes a proposal is known as ________.

  1. Promisor

  2. Principal Debtor

  3. Surety

  4. Guarantor


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

When two parties enter into an agreement, there are two distinct roles each play: the promisor and the promisee. The promisor is the party that makes the proposal/promise, while the promisee is on the receiving end of the promise/proposal.

Insurance policies are contracts which are in the nature of

  1. Guarantee

  2. Pledge

  3. Bailment

  4. Indemnity


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Security or protection against a loss or other financial burden is known as indemnity. Thus, insurance policies are contracts which are in the nature of indemnity.

Liability of the surety is _________ that of the principal debtor.

  1. coextensive with

  2. primary to

  3. secondary to

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The surety's obligation cannot exceed that of the principal. In India, the liability of the surety is, unless otherwise provided by contract, coextensive with that of the principal.

Agent can be appointed by _________.

  1. Express Appointment

  2. Implication of Law

  3. Ratification by Principal

  4. Any of the above three modes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Agent can be appointed by express appointment, estoppel, implied appointment, ratification by principal and necessity, etc. Thus, all the given options are correct.

___________ means the consideration for a sale of goods.

  1. Price

  2. Lien Delivery

  3. Share

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under Sale of Goods Act, 1930, “price” means the money consideration for a sale of goods.

__________ goods mean goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made.

  1. Future

  2. Specific

  3. Movable

  4. Immovable


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Sale of Goods Act, 1930, “specific goods” mean goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made.

There is an implied condition on the part of the seller that he has a right to __________ the goods.

  1. use

  2. sell

  3. retain

  4. resell


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

An implied condition on the part of the seller is that, in the case of a sale, he has a right to sell the goods and that, in the case of an agreement to sell, he will have a right to sell the goods at the time when the property is to pass.

In _____________, the ownership of goods is yet to pass from the seller to the buyer.

  1. agreement to sell

  2. contract of sale

  3. contract of future goods

  4. contract of specific goods


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, the contract is called a sale, but where the transfer of the property in the goods is to take place at a future time or subject to some condition thereafter to be fulfilled, the contract is called an agreement to sell. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

There is no _________ as to the quality or fitness of goods for any particular purpose.

  1. implied condition

  2. implied warranty

  3. express condition

  4. express warranty


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Subject to the provisions of Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and of any other law for the time being in force, there is no implied warranty or condition as to the quality or fitness for any particular purpose of goods supplied under a contract of sale.

The minimum number of members required in a private company is ____________.

  1. 3

  2. 7

  3. 12

  4. 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The minimum number of persons required in public, private and one person company is 7, 2 and 1, respectively. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 

The maximum number of members in a public company can be __________.

  1. any number

  2. 12

  3. 50

  4. 15


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

No restriction has been implied for the maximum number of members in a public company. Thus, option (1) is the correct answer.

Goods mean

  1. every kind of movable property including actionable claims excluding money

  2. every kind of movable property including actionable claims and money

  3. every kind of movable property excluding actionable claims and including money

  4. every kind of movable property excluding actionable claims and money


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

According to Sales of Goods Act, 1930, 'Goods' mean every kind of movable property excluding actionable claims and money. 

A stipulation collateral to the main purpose of a contract, under the Sale of Goods Act, is called

  1. a condition

  2. a warranty

  3. a guarantee

  4. an undertaking


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Sale of Goods Act, 1930, a warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a claim for damages but not to a right to reject the goods and treat the contract as repudiated.

Which of the following rights is not available to unpaid seller where the property has passed on to the buyer?

  1. A lien on goods for price while he is in possession of the goods

  2. In case of insolvency of the buyer, a right of stopping the goods in transit after he has parted with the possession of them

  3. A right of resale

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Subject to the provisions of Sale of Goods Act, 1930 and of any law for the time being in force, notwithstanding that the property in the goods may have passed on to the buyer, the unpaid seller of goods, as such, has by implication of law — (a) a lien on the goods for the price while he is in possession of them; (b) in case of the insolvency of the buyer, a right of stopping the goods in transit after he has parted with the possession of them; (c) a right of resale as limited by this Act.

Thus, option (4) is the correct answer.

What is the minimum and maximum number of partners in a Limited Liability Partnership?

  1. Minimum 2 and maximum no limit

  2. Minimum 2 and maximum 50

  3. Minimum 2 and maximum 20

  4. Minimum 2 and maximum 10


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Minimum 2 partners are required to form an LLP and there is no limit for the maximum number of partners. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 

The minimum number of directors required in a public company is _________.

  1. 3

  2. 7

  3. 12

  4. 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The 1956 Act prescribed minimum 2 directors for a private and 3 for a public company to constitute a Board. This criterion has been retained by the new Act as well. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer. 

Alternate directors are appointed by the ___________.

  1. Board of Directors

  2. Promoters

  3. Underwriters

  4. Shareholders


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Board of Directors of a company may, if so authorised by its articles or by a resolution passed by the company in general meeting, appoint a person, not being a person holding any alternate directorship for any other director in the company, to act as an alternate director for a director during his absence for a period of not less than three months.

If a person commits offence under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, he shall be liable for imprisonment up to

  1. three years

  2. five years

  3. five to ten years

  4. three to seven years


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Persons found guilty of an offence of money laundering are punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but may extend up to seven years and shall also be liable to fine. 

Which of the following charges, in case of a company, does not require to be registered u/s 125 of Companies Act?

  1. A charge on book debts of the company

  2. A floating charge on stocks of the company

  3. A charge on immovable property of the company

  4. A charge relating to contingent liabilities of the firm like letter of credit bank guarantee


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 125 of Companies Act applies to the charges like: a charge for the purpose of securing any issue of debentures a charge on uncalled share capital of the company a charge on any book debts of the company a charge, not being a pledge, on any movable property of the company a floating charge on the undertaking or any property of the company including stock-in-trade a charge on calls made but not paid etc. However, a charge relating to contingent liabilities of the firm like letter of credit bank guarantee is not under this section.

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