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Indian Polity - 4

Description: Polity Mixed - 4
Number of Questions: 30
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Tags: Polity Mixed - 4 General Knowledge General Awareness CHSL (Combined Higher Secondary Level) Political Science
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The theory of Fundamental Rights implies

  1. limited government

  2. equality of opportunity for all

  3. equality of all before law

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct answer is (1).  Fundamental rights primarily protect individuals from any arbitrary state actions. The fundamental rights were included in the constitution because they were considered essential for the development of the personality of every individual and to preserve human dignity. 

Under which of the following articles can a person move to the Supreme Court directly in the event of violation of fundamental rights?

  1. Article 30

  2. Article 31

  3. Article 32

  4. Article 33


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct option is (3).

The implication of secularism in the Indian constitution is

  1. non-discrimination on the basis of one's creed

  2. opposition to all religions

  3. legal prohibition of communal parties

  4. ban over religious conversion by law


Correct Option: A

The Government of the Union of India is parliamentary in character. One of the characteristics of a parliamentary system of the Government is that

  1. the Ministry is collectively responsible to both Houses of Parliament

  2. the Ministry is not responsible to the Parliament

  3. the Ministry is responsible to the Head of the State

  4. the Ministry is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha


Correct Option: D

On which of the following dates did the Constitution of India come into force?

  1. 26th November, 1949

  2. 29th August, 1947

  3. 26th January, 1950

  4. 17th October, 1949


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct answer is (3). 

The Union Constitution Committee, formed by the Constituent Assembly, was headed by

  1. Subhash Chandar Bose

  2. Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. Sardar Patel

  4. Rajendra Prasad


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the constitution of India and after independence, served as the nation's first parliament. The Union Constitution Committee, formed by the Constituent Assembly, was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru. Jawaharlal Nehru became a leader of the left wing of the Congress when fairly young. 

Consider the following:

  1. There are 8 types of urban local governments in India.
  2. Notified Area Committee and Town Area Committee are among the types of urban local government.
  3. Pollution Control Board is a subordinate agency of the local municipal body. Which of the statements are correct?
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 2 and 3

  3. Both 1 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct. There are 8 types of Urban Governments. They are municipal corporation, municipality, notified area committee, town area committee, cantonment board, township, port trust and special purpose agencies. They function as autonomous bodies and deal with the functions allotted to them independently of the local urban governments (i.e. municipal corporations, municipalities, etc.). Thus they are not subordinate agencies of the local municipal bodies.

Statement 2: It is correct. They are municipal corporation, municipality, notified area committee, town area committee, cantonment board, township, port trust and special purpose agency. Statement 3: It is incorrect. Pollution Control Board is one among the special purpose agencies that are established as statutory bodies by an act of state legislature or as departments.

Consider the following statements:

  1. At present, 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in some states.
  2. Parliament can extend the provisions of 73rd Amendment Act to the scheduled areas and tribal areas through PESA.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct. The act does not apply to schedule areas of 9 states (Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh) and tribal areas in the 4 states (Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura). Statement 2: It is incorrect. Parliament can extend the provisions of 73rd Amendment Act to only the scheduled areas subjected to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the parliament has enacted provisions of panchayat, i.e. extension to schedule areas act, 1996 (PESA).

Who amongst the following can be removed without the Parliament's resolution?

  1. Governor of a state

  2. Any judge of the Supreme Court

  3. Any judge of a High Court

  4. Chief Election Commissioner


Correct Option: A

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state submits his resignation to the

  1. Chief Minister

  2. Governor

  3. Chief Justice of the High Court

  4. Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of that state


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state submits his resignation to the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of that state.

Who among the following decides the nature of a bill?

  1. Prime Minister

  2. President

  3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct answer is (3). 

The powers of the judicial review are vested on

  1. the Supreme Court and all the High Courts

  2. the President of India

  3. all the Courts

  4. the Parliament of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

One of the powers of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is that of judicial review.

The 'Indian Parliament' comprises

  1. the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha

  2. the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha and the President

  3. the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers

  4. the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Cabinet


Correct Option: B

The Supreme Court in India has to work according to

  1. the wishes of the President

  2. the instructions of the Prime Minister

  3. the provisions of the constitution

  4. the guidelines laid down by the Parliament


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option 3 is the correct answer.

In India, the first initiative for the development of local self government institutions was taken during the time of

  1. Lord Mayo

  2. Lord Rippon

  3. Lord Cornwallis

  4. Lord Wellesley


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

No doubt, Lord Rippon is known as the “father of local self government”, but it was Lord Mayo's Resolution (for decentralisation of power to bring about administrative efficiency in meeting people's demand and to add to the finances of colonial regime) that gave the needed impetus to the development of local institutions. It was a landmark in the evolution of colonial policy towards local government.

The importance of Village Panchayats has been recognised by the fathers of the Indian Constitution. The provision for organising Village Panchayats exists in

  1. Preamble of the Constitution

  2. Chapter on Fundamental Rights

  3. Chapter on Directive Principles

  4. Amendments to the Constitution


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct answer is (4).  The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats. 

Which committee/commission recommended incorporation of provisions relating to Fundamental Duties into the Constitution of India?

  1. Mandal Commission

  2. Sarkaria Commission

  3. Swaran Singh Committee

  4. Rajmannan Committee


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the government earlier that year. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years. 

Which of the following is not included in the 'Directive Principles of State Policy'?

  1. Right to equality

  2. Right to work

  3. Right to equal wages for equal work

  4. Right to free and compulsory education upto the age of fourteen


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

  Option (1) is the correct answer.

Territory of India as enshrined in the Indian Constitution consists of:

  1. States
  2. Union Territories
  3. Other territories acquired by India
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 1 and 2

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Concept based question. Here a student needs to understand the difference between Union of India and Territory of India. While the former includes only the states that share federal powers with the centre, the latter includes the entire territory over which the sovereignty of the country is expressed.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. Articles 2, 3 and 4 demonstrate the flexibility of the Indian constitution.
  2. The Indian Parliament may form a new state or alter the boundaries of the existing states by a simple majority and by ordinary legislative process.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under Article 3 of the Indian constitution, the Parliament can alter the boundaries of any state or change its name. For this process, the Parliament does not require consent of the state. Besides, Articles 2, 3 and 4 of Part I of the Indian constitution deal with the relation between the Union and its territory. This relation is very flexible and biased towards the Union.

Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?

  1. Birth

  2. Acquiring property

  3. Descent

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Acquiring property in India is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India.

Which of the following is/are the power(s) of State Legislature?

  1. It plays a role in amendment of the fundamental provisions of the constitution.
  2. It considers reports of the State Public Service Commission.
  3. It takes part in the election of the President.
  1. Only 2

  2. Only 1 and 2

  3. Only 2 and 3

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong: State Legislature has no role in amendment of the fundamental provisions of the constitution. Any amendment to the Constitution of India can only be made by the Parliament, i.e. the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: Reports of the State Public Service Commission are considered by the State Legislature. Statement 3 is correct: The President of India is elected by an electoral college that consists of elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament and the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

As per the Indian constitution, the strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state should be between 60 and 500. Which of the following states are exceptions to this guideline?

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Sikkim
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Goa
  1. Only 1 and 4

  2. Only 2 and 4

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. Only 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

As per the Indian constitution, the strength of the Legislative Assembly of a state should be between 60 and 500, but the President has the power to alter this number as the number also depends upon the size of the population of the state. In India, Sikkim (32), Goa (40) and Mizoram (40) are the states that have less than 60 members in their Legislative Assemblies.

Which of the following is wrong about Parliamentary Democracy?

  1. It does not adjust easily according to the changed circumstances.

  2. Ministers get more opportunities to show their abilities under this system of government.

  3. The President gives impartial advice.

  4. There is close co-operation between the executive and the legislature.


Correct Option: A

Which of the following words was/were added to the Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment?

  1. Federal
  2. Democratic
  3. Socialist
  4. Secular
  1. Only 1 and 3

  2. Only 4

  3. Only 3 and 4

  4. Only 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist, secular and democratic republic" and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Constituent Assembly, despite being indirectly elected, comprised representatives of all sections of the Indian society.
  2. All important personalities of contemporary India were members of the Assembly.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both of these

  4. Neither of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of adult franchise, the Assembly comprised representatives of all the sections of Indian society. Statement 2 is wrong: The Assembly included all important personalities of contemporary India, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Constitution of India was adopted by the people of India on 26th January, 1950.
  2. On the day the Constitution came into effect, India ceased to be a dominion of the British crown.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong: The Constitution of India was adopted by the people of India on 26th November, 1949 and it came into effect on 26th January, 1950. Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution of India proclaimed India to be a sovereign, democratic republic. Hence, India ceased to be a dominion of the British crown from the day the Constitution came into effect.

For which of the following reasons are the rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution called fundamental?

  1. These rights are justiciable
  2. These rights are provided by the Constitution itself
  3. These rights are crucial for complete development of a person
  4. They can only be amended by Constitutional amendments
  1. Only 2

  2. Only 1 & 2

  3. Only 2 & 3

  4. Only 2, 3 & 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution are called fundamental because of two reasons:

1. These rights are granted by the supreme law of the land itself i.e. by the Constitution of India 2. These rights are indispensable for the holistic development of a person

The Supreme Court in a number of cases held that the Parliament, by exercising its amending power under Art 368, can amend even Part III. Which of the following choices confirms the same ruling?

  1. Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
  2. Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan
  3. Golaknath vs State of Punjab
  4. Keshvanada vs State of Kerala
  1. Only 1 and 4

  2. Only 1 and 2

  3. Only 1, 2 and 4

  4. Only 1, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Shankari Prasad vs Union of India case (1952) and Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan (1965) ruling, the Supreme Court explicitly gave the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution. Hence, both these cases should be there in the correct option.

In Golaknath vs State of Punjab case, Fundamental Rights were given a ‘Transcendental Position’, whereby no authority including the Parliament was competent to amend the Constitution. Hence, it should not be in the correct choice.

Now the trap is Keshvanada vs State of Kerala case. A student may keep in his mind the idea of ‘basic structure’ that was propounded by this ruling, and may commit a mistake. But, we need to understand that this ruling didn’t disallow the Parliament to amend the Constitution. It only ruled out that, “Nothing that infringes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution can be amended”. Thus, option (2) is wrong and option (3) is the correct choice.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides for Uniform Civil Code, which deals with issues like marriage, divorce, inheritance, etc.
  2. In Sarla Mudgal Case, the Supreme Court held that conversion to Islam, by itself, would not dissolve a Hindu marriage registered under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides for Uniform Civil Code, which means that all sections of the society shall be treated equally. Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court, in Sarla Mudgal Case, held that conversion to Islam, by itself, would not dissolve a Hindu marriage registered under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

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