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Mixed Biology Test

Description: This test is based on certain topics from biology which are highly beneficial for learning aspirants.
Number of Questions: 15
Created by:
Tags: regulatory T cell Expression of CD4 Production of IL-10 etc The Defence Mechanism Immune System of Human Body Related Disorders Auto Immune Diseases Mutation AID and Cancer -- Causes and Control AIDS Cancer Human Blood Components of Blood
Attempted 0/15 Correct 0 Score 0

Th2 cells are involved in the humoral immune response. The single most effective agent downregulating Th2 cells is

  1. gamma interferon

  2. IL-12

  3. antigens

  4. IL-2

  5. Th17 cells


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Gamma interferon is a defining cytokine of Th1 cells and involved in the downregulation of Th2 cells.

The most defining feature of a regulatory T-cell is

  1. expression of CD4

  2. expression of Foxp3

  3. production of IL-10

  4. that it can be induced by TGF

  5. expression of CD25


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Expression of Foxp3 transcription factor is the best 'marker' that correlates with regulatory T-cell activity.

The single most important factor controlling the B-cell response is

  1. antibody concentration

  2. antigen concentration

  3. assistance from follicular dendritic cells

  4. the inter digitating dendritic cell

  5. regulatory T-cells


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Antigen drives both T-cell and B-cell responses.

Which of the following is an autoimmune condition with the single most profound genetic association?

  1. Graves' disease

  2. Type1 diabetes

  3. Ankylosing spondylitis

  4. Rheumatoid arthritis

  5. IPEX (Immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy and X-linked syndrome)


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

By far, the vast majority of autoimmune diseases involve multiple genes together with environmental factors. IPEX is an example of an extremely small number of autoimmune diseases that are caused by a single gene defect. In this case, mutation of the Foxp3 gene results in a profound defect in regulatory T-cell activity.

Which of the following single immunodeficiency disease affects CD4-positive T-cells ?

  1. The acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).

  2. Complete DiGeorge syndrome

  3. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency

  4. Severe protein-calorie malnutrition

  5. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In complete DiGeorge syndrome there is a total failure of the thymus to develop and thus neither CD4-positive T-cells nor CD8-positive T-cells are formed. Note, however, that most cases of DiGeorge syndrome are 'partial' with some thymic development and thus not a complete absence of T-cells.

Mutations in the gene encoding which of the following, most commonly results in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

  1. Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

  2. Interleukin 7 receptor alpha chain

  3. Gamma C interleukin receptor component of the interleukin 15 receptor

  4. RAG 2 (recombination activating gene 2)

  5. Artemis


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Gamma C deficiency is responsible for about 40% of cases of SCID, and together with JAK 3 deficiency, results in a T-B+NK- phenotype. It is also utilized by the receptors for IL-2, -4, -7, -9 and -21.

The systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterised by

  1. a type III hypersensitivity

  2. an autoimmune disease

  3. a disease that often affects the skin

  4. a disease that often affects the kidneys

  5. a disease in which characteristically anti-DNA auto antibodies are present


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Although patients with SLE often develop an immune complex mediated glomerulonephritis, this is not the single best defining feature. Patients with SLE very characteristically possess anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA), including antibodies against DNA.

The single best description of type 1 diabetes is that it

  1. results in hyperglycemia

  2. is characterised by the production of autoantibodies

  3. involves a T-cell infiltration into an endocrine gland

  4. involves lymphocyte recognition of glutamic acid decarboxylase

  5. occurs at higher frequency in genetically susceptible individuals.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

This is one of the main defining autoantigens in type 1 diabetes along with insulin and IA-2.

Which of the following can be made from donor blood?

  1. Activated factor VII

  2. Recombinant factor VIII

  3. Recombinant factor X

  4. Albumin solution

  5. Rituximab


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The albumin solution is suitable for medical use generally at concentrations of 5-25%. Human albumin is often used to replace lost fluid, and help restore blood volume in trauma, burns and surgery patients.

The location where adaptive immune responses arise is most precisely described as:

  1. secondary lymphoid tissue

  2. spleen

  3. lymph node

  4. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

  5. germinal centers


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Germinal centers are produced in secondary lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes, spleen, MALT) when antigen initiates an adaptive immune response.

Which of these statements concerning platelets is not true?

  1. They extrude their nucleus as they pass through the spleen.

  2. The megakaryocyte matures by endomitotic synchronous replication so that the number of nuclear lobes increases within the cell.

  3. Thrombopoietin is the major regulator of platelet production, and is produced by the liver and kidneys.

  4. The platelet lifespan is 7-10 days.

  5. The platelets provide phospholipid for the initiation of the coagulation process.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

This is an incorrect statement as the platelets bud off from megakaryocytes, and never have a nucleus.

Which of the following is not associated with HIV infection?

  1. An increased incidence of thrombocytopenia.

  2. An increased incidence in gliomas.

  3. Paraproteinemia

  4. CNS lymphoma

  5. EBV herpes virus


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A glioma is a type of tumor that starts in the brain or spine. It is called a glioma because it arises from glial cells. An increased incidence in gliomas has no association with HIV infection.

Which of the following transfusions is likely to cause intravascular haemolysis?

  1. Group O blood to group A recipient

  2. Group B blood to group O recipient

  3. Group O blood to group AB recipient

  4. Rh positive blood to a Rh negative donor

  5. Rh negative blood to a Rh positive donor


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

When group B blood is transfused to group O recipient, it will cause intravascular haemolysis as the recipient has anti-B antibodies.

CD40 ligand also known as CD154 is a cytokine receptor. It is expressed by_______________.

  1. B cells

  2. Dendritic cells

  3. Resting T cells

  4. Activated T cells

  5. All leukocytes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

CD40 ligand is proclaimed on the surface of the CD4+ T cells as a result of the activation that follows the binding of peptide MHC class II to the TCR.

The administration of vaccines is also associated with certain hazards. Which of the following is least likely to affect unsympathetically an immunocompromised host?

  1. Measles vaccine

  2. Pneumococcal vaccine

  3. Bacille Calmette Guaaerin

  4. Mumps vaccine

  5. Sabin poliomyelitis vaccine


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The pneumococcal vaccine encompasses capsular polysaccharides from Streptococcus pneumoniae, and represents a non-viable vaccine, which cannot lead to infection.

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