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CS - Business Environment and Entrepreneurship (Dec,...

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Which of the following is not a feature of business environment?

  1. Dynamic nature

  2. Image building

  3. Uncertainty

  4. Totality of external forces


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Environmental understanding helps business organisations in improving their image by showing their sensitivity towards the environment within which they are working.

Which of the following describes the desired future position of a company?

  1. Mission statement

  2. Vision statement

  3. Competitive advantage

  4. Qualitative policy


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

 A vision statement describes the desired future position of a company.

The minimum number of members required to get a co-operative society registered is

  1. 15

  2. 20

  3. 10

  4. 5


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 Minimum 10 persons are required to form a co-operative society.

Which of the following entities is/are created under an Act of the Parliament or an Act of the State Legislature?

  1. Statutory corporation

  2. Government companies

  3. Co-operative society

  4. Limited liability partnership


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statutory corporation refers to a corporate body created by the Parliament or State Legislature by a special act which defines its powers, functions and pattern of management.

The process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of a business enterprise is known as

  1. liberalisation

  2. globalisation

  3. privatisation

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Liberalisation refers to the process of eliminating unnecessary controls and restrictions on the smooth functioning of business enterprises. Privatisation means transfer of ownership and/or management of an enterprise from the public sector to the private sector. Globalisation may be defined as “the growing economic interdependence of countries worldwide through increasing volume and variety of cross border transactions in goods and services and of international capital flows and also, through the more rapid and widespread diffusion of technology”. 

In which of the following are personal digital assistants (PDAs) used for buying and selling of goods and services?

  1. E-commerce

  2. M-commerce

  3. V-commerce

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

M-commerce is the ability to conduct commerce using a mobile device, such as a mobile phone, a Personal Digital Assistant (PDA), a smart phone or other emerging mobile equipments, such as dash top mobile devices.

The choice of an appropriate form of business organisation largely depends upon

I. ease of formation II. continuity and stability III. liability aspects

  1. I and II

  2. II and III

  3. I and III

  4. I, II and III


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The choice of the form of commercial organisation largely depends upon the given factors and many other factors such as continuity and stability, flexibility of operations, distinct ownership, etc.

Which form of business organisation has a separate legal entity?

  1. Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)

  2. Co-operative society

  3. Partnership firm

  4. Sole proprietorship


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A co-operative society after registration is recognised as separate legal entity by law. The income of co-operative society is legally taxable as per the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Car servicing is an example of

  1. batch processing

  2. job processing

  3. flow processing

  4. contract processing


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Flow has been defined as a method of production organisation where the task is worked on continuously or where the processing of material is continuous and progressive. Car manufacturing is an example of flow processing.

The online purchase of a book from filpkart. com is an example of

  1. B2B e-commerce

  2. B2C e-commerce

  3. C2B e-commerce

  4. C2C e-commerce


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The basic concept of B2C model is to sell the product online to consumers. Online purchase of a book from flipkart is an example of this model.

For a car manufacturing firm, which of the following business processes is most suitable for outsourcing?

  1. Production management

  2. Quality assurance

  3. Customer relationship

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 For a car manufacturing business, production management and quality assurance are the core business funtions. However, a car manufacturing firm can outsource customer relationship function from an outside agency.

Which of the following types of budget is prepared to assess the level of inventories, receivables, etc.?

  1. Material budget

  2. Profitability budget

  3. Cash budget

  4. Working capital budget


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Working capital budget specifies available working capital, i.e. investment in current assets like inventory, debtors, etc. at different points of time.

Which of the following strategies focuses on issues of production processes, material, etc.?

  1. Operational strategy

  2. Business unit strategy

  3. Corporate strategy

  4. Marketing strategy


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Operational strategy is concerned with how each part of a business is organised to deliver the corporate and business unit level strategic direction. Operational strategy focuses on issues of resources, processes, people, etc.

Transfer pricing litigations are generally related to

  1. domestic companies

  2. multinational companies

  3. public enterprises

  4. statutory authority


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Transfer pricing enables multinational corporations to avoid taxes by manipulating prices in the case of intra-company transactions.

Generally, __________ is responsible for complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring in a company.

  1. finance function

  2. marketing function

  3. secretarial function

  4. administration function


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In business, secretarial division is reponsible for performing secretarial functions, i.e complying procedural formalities relating to corporate restructuring. For example, conducting Board Meetings, drafting agendas, etc.

If a new contract is substituted in place of an existing contract, it is called

  1. alteration

  2. rescission

  3. novation

  4. waiver


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Novation – when a new contract is substituted for existing contract either between the same parties or between different parties, the consideration mutually being the discharge of the old contract

______________ means "adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established".

  1. Stare decisis

  2. Ratio decidendi

  3. Obiter dicta

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 The doctrine of stare decisis means “adhere to the decision and do not unsettle things which are established”.

A contract is a/an

  1. promise to do something or abstain from doing something

  2. communication of intention to do something or abstain from doing something

  3. set of promises

  4. agreement enforceable by law


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Indian Contract Act has defined contract in Section 2(h) as “an agreement enforceable by law”.

When consent is obtained under undue influence, the contract is termed as

  1. valid contract

  2. void contract

  3. voidable contract

  4. unilateral contract


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 A contract becomes voidable when the consent of the parties is induced by coercion, undue influence, misrepresentation or fraud.

A contract of indemnity is a

  1. contingent contract

  2. wagering contract

  3. quasi contract

  4. void agreement


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen. For example, A contracts to sell B 10 bales of cotton for Rs. 20,000 if the ship by which they are coming returns safely. This is a contingent contract. Contract of insurance and contracts of indemnity and guarantee are popular instances of contingent contracts.

A surety may be discharged from liability

X. by notice of revocation of guarantee Y. on the failure of payment by the principal debtor Z. if the creditor does any act which is against the rights of the surety

  1. X and Y

  2. Y and Z

  3. X and Z

  4. X, Y and Z


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Surety cannot be discharged from liability if the principal debtor fails to make the payment. In such a case, surety becomes liable to pay in place of principal debtor.

If the behaviour of a person shows that he is a partner in a firm (when actually he is not), such a person is known as

  1. nominal partner

  2. sleeping partner

  3. sub-partner

  4. partner by estoppel


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

If the behaviour of a person arouses misunderstanding that he is a partner in a firm (when actually he is not), such a person is estopped from later on denying the liabilities for the acts of the firm. Such person is called partner by estoppel and is liable to all third parties.

An agreement for rendering services entered into by a father on behalf of his minor daughter is

  1. void

  2. voidable

  3. valid

  4. quasi


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 Any agreement with minor or with any person on behalf of minor is void.

An agent who in consideration of extra commission gives guarantee to his principal that the purchaser of the goods on credit will pay for the goods is called

  1. sub-agent

  2. mercantile agent

  3. broker

  4. del credere agent


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A del credere agent is a mercantile agent. In the event of a third-party failing to pay, the del credere agent is bound to pay his principal the sum owned by third party.

Which of the following are the rights of a partner in a partnership firm?

W. To receive share in the profits X. To take part in the conduct and management of business Y. To receive remuneration for active working in the firm Z. To receive interest on the capital invested in the firm

  1. X and Y

  2. X and Z

  3. X and W

  4. X, Z and W


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A partner has the right to receive remuneration and interest on capital only if within the limits prescribed by the law as well as specified in the partnership deed.

As per the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, ‘goods’ include

I. existing goods II. future goods III. contingent goods IV. actionable claims

  1. I, II and III

  2. II, III and IV

  3. I, II and IV

  4. I, II, III and IV


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, “goods” means every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money and includes stock and shares, growing crops, grass and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before sale or under the contract of sale.

The meaning of legal maxim 'mens rea' is

  1. pending suit

  2. immediate profits

  3. during litigation

  4. guilty mind


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Mens rea means a guilty mind.

Which of the following means 'no one can pass a better title than he himself has'?

  1. Caveat emptor

  2. Nemo dat quod non habet

  3. Res integra

  4. Sine die


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Nemo Dat Quod Non Habet - no one can pass a better title than he himself has

In which of the following cases may a partnership firm be dissolved?

X. On the death of a partner Y. On the insolvency of a partner Z. On the retirement of a partner

  1. X and Y

  2. X and Z

  3. Y and Z

  4. X, Y and Z


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The dissolution of partnership takes place in the following circumstances: (a) By the expiry of the fixed term for which the partnership was formed (b) By the completion of the adventure (c) By the death of a partner (d) By the insolvency of a partner (e) By the retirement of a partner

Which of the following give a right to claim damages for breach?

  1. Conditions

  2. Warranties

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 Right to claim damages is available in case of breach of condition as well as warranty.

Which of the following is a valid promissory note?

  1. I owe A Rs. 500.

  2. I promise to pay Rs. 1,000 ten days after the death of B.

  3. I promise to pay the bearer Rs. 1,000.

  4. I promise to pay Rs. 1,000 after the marriage of B.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A “promissory note” is an instrument in writing (not being a bank note or a currency note) containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker to pay a certain sum of money to, or to the order of, a certain person, or only to bearer of the instrument. Option (3) satisfies all the conditions of a promissory note.

Which of the following are the characteristics of a private company?

X. Limited liability of members Y. Perpetual succession Z. Free transferability of shares

  1. X and Y

  2. Y and Z

  3. X and Z

  4. X, Y and Z


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Free transferability of shares is the feature of a public company, not a private company.

Which of the following negotiable instruments is drawn, accepted or endorsed without consideration?

  1. Inland bill of exchange

  2. Foreign bill of exchange

  3. Accommodation bill

  4. Promissory note


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Accommodation bill is a bill in which a person lends or gives his name to oblige a friend or some person whom he knows or otherwise. Hence, accomodation bill is drawn, accepted or endorsed without consideration.

Which of the following is an example of immaterial alteration in a negotiable instrument?

  1. Changing the date

  2. Changing the sum payable

  3. Crossing the instrument

  4. Changing the place of payment


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

There is no material alteration in the following cases: (i) Correction of a mistake (ii) To carry out the common intention of the parties (iii) An alteration made before the instrument is issued and made with the consent of the parties (iv) Crossing a cheque (v) Addition of the words “on demand” in an instrument, where no time of payment is stated

Research which is proactively carried out for a specific purpose is called

  1. primary research

  2. secondary research

  3. active scanning

  4. creative distructions


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Primary research is proactively created for a specific purpose. Primary research may include focus groups, qualitative surveys and phone interviews.

A person within a large corporation who takes direct responsibility for turning an idea into a profitable finished product through assertive risk taking and innovation is an

  1. intrapreneur

  2. entrepreneur

  3. manager

  4. improver


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A person within a large corporation who takes direct responsibility for turning an idea into a profitable finished product through assertive risk-taking and innovation is an intrapreneur.

Which of the following are characteristics of intrapreneurship?

X. Intrapreneurship is a risk-taking factor, which is responsible for the end result in the form of profit or loss. Y. It cultivates entrepreneurial skills. Z. Its followers are called managers.

  1. X and Y

  2. Y and Z

  3. X and Z

  4. X, Y and Z


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

X, Y and Z are features of intrapreneurship.

Which of the following types of businesses are ordinarily carried out at annual general meeting of a company?

X. To declare dividend Y. To recommend dividend Z. To appoint the auditors W. To make calls on shares

  1. X and Y

  2. X and Z

  3. X, Z and W

  4. X, Y, Z and W


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

As per the Companies Act, 2013, all other businesses can be transacted at an Annual General Meeting except the following: (i)     Consideration of financial statements and the reports of Board of Directors and auditors (ii)    Declaration of any dividend (iii)   Appointment of directors in place of those retiring (iv)   Appointment and fixing of the remuneration of auditors

Which of the following is also known as Internal External (IE) matrix?

  1. PESTLE analysis

  2. Pareto analysis

  3. SWOT analysis

  4. Industry analysis


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Strengths and weaknesses are often internal to the organisation, while opportunities and threats generally relate to external factors. For this reason, the SWOT Analysis is sometimes called Internal-External analysis and SWOT matrix is sometimes called an IE matrix.

Who among the following propounded the concept of 'creative destructions'?

  1. Steve Jobs

  2. Albert S Humphrey

  3. Joseph Schumpeter

  4. Cantillon


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Joseph Schumpeter believed that the concept of innovation is process of “creative destructions.” Innovation requires a fresh way of looking at things, an understanding of people, and an entrepreneurial willingness to take risks and to work hard.

In which type of environmental scanning are ad hoc decisions made?

  1. Passive scanning

  2. Active scanning

  3. Directed scanning

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Ongoing scanning at an almost unconscious level is passive scanning. No effort is made to select a particular information resource to scan. Only ad hoc decisions are made on the results of this type of scanning.

Which of the following is not a myth about business plans?

  1. Business plans are required only for start-up companies.

  2. Business plans should be optimistic.

  3. Business plans should be concise and well written.

  4. Business plans should emphasise upon ideas and concepts.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 Business plans should be concise and well written is not a myth, but a reality.

In general, vision and mission statements of an organisation are a result of

  1. operational planning

  2. strategic planning

  3. middle level planning

  4. performance planning


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Strategic plan draws the clear layout of specific business’s venture, vision, missions, objectives, competencies, managerial abilities, technical proficiency, and sources of fund. Thus, vision and mission statements of an organisation are a result of strategic planning.

Who said ' Innovation is a means by which entrepreneurs exploit changes as an opportunity for a different business or a different service'?

  1. Steve Jobs

  2. Peter F. Drucker

  3. Joseph Schumpeter

  4. Paul H. Wilken


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

According to Peter F. Drucker, innovation is a means by which entrepreneurs exploit change as an opportunity for a different business or a different service.

One who with his charm establishes and manages business to take it to unimaginable heights is known as ________ entrepreneur.

  1. superstar

  2. idealist

  3. artist

  4. sustainer


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Superstar entrepreneur is lead by charisma, charm and high energy. An entrepreneur like this has an overwhelming personality which works in his favour, so does in the favour of business. This personality often will cause to build business around own personal brand.

Who among the following first recognised the necessity of entrepreneurship for production?

  1. David Ricardo

  2. Peter F. Drucker

  3. Alfred Marshall

  4. John Stuart Mill


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The necessity of entrepreneurship for production was first formally recognised by Alfred Marshall in 1890.

Which of the following are characteristics of a person with weak sense of self-efficacy?

X. Recovering quickly from setbacks and disappointments Y. Focusing on personal failings and negative outcomes Z. Avoiding challenging tasks

  1. X and Y

  2. Y and Z

  3. X and Z

  4. X, Y and Z


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Self-efficacy is the belief in one’s capabilities to organise and execute the courses of action required to manage prospective situations. People with a weak sense of self-efficacy: – Avoid challenging tasks – Believe that difficult tasks and situations are beyond their capabilities – Focus on personal failings and negative outcomes – Quickly lose confidence in personal abilities

"Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity or an innovative function" was said by

  1. Schumpeter

  2. Kelsen

  3. Henry Maine

  4. Peter Drucker


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to Schumpeter, “Entrepreneurship is essentially a creative activity or an innovative function”.

The careful monitoring of an organisation's internal and external environments for detecting early signs of opportunities and threats that may influence its current and future plans means

  1. environment scanning

  2. market analysis

  3. SWOT analysis

  4. PESTLE analysis


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Environment scanning is careful monitoring of an organisation’s internal and external environments for detecting early signs of opportunities and threats that may influence its current and future plans.

PESTLE analysis is a useful tool for understanding the 'big picture' of the ________ in which an entrepreneur is planning to operate.

  1. environment

  2. strategy

  3. position

  4. marketing proposition


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

PESTLE analysis is in fact, an audit of environmental influences on the business idea with the purpose of using this information to preascertain the factors affecting the likely project and thereby guiding strategic decision-making in accordance. 

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