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Mixed Biology Test

Description: This test is based on certain topics from biology which is beneficial for learning aspirants.
Number of Questions: 25
Created by:
Tags: DNA RNA genes chromosomes TATA box etc DNA Replication Replication of DNA Cytoplasmic Inheritance Genetics and Evolution Gene Expression and Regulation Regulation of Gene Expression Mitosis
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Which of the following repeated sequences includes an open reading frame for reverse transcriptase?

  1. LINE

  2. SINE

  3. Segmental duplications

  4. DNA transposons


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

LINE (L stands for long) is a small piece of foreign DNA that have been inserted into the chromosomes of a multicelled organism by foreign agents such as retroviruses. LINEs include an open reading frame for reverse transcriptase.

A study of a disorder reveals that monozygotic twins are concordant 40% of the time, whereas full siblings are concordant 10% of the time. Which of the following is the best interpretation of this finding?

  1. The trait has no genetic component.

  2. The trait is completely determined by genetics.

  3. Genes contribute to the trait, but are not deterministic.

  4. The trait must be due to the biology of twinning.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

There is an increased twin concordance, suggestive of a genetic contribution, but since twins are not fully concordant, other non-genetic factors must also be involved.

Which of the following best explains the threshold model?

  1. A quantitative multifactorial trait

  2. A polygenic multifactorial trait

  3. A multifactorial trait results in a non-disease phenotype such as height

  4. A multifactorial trait exhibits all or none phenotype.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The threshold model postulates that the phenotype is absent until a threshold of liability is reached, after which the phenotype is expressed.

In meiosis, when do homologous chromosomes begin to pair?

  1. Prophase I

  2. Metaphase I

  3. Metaphase II

  4. Prophase II


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Here the chromosomes condense to form tetrads and exchange DNA. The nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear. Homologous chromosomes pair in prophase I.

The purpose of adding phytohemagglutinin to peripheral blood cultures for chromosomal analysis is

  1. swelling of cells to permit chromosome visualization

  2. collection of large number of cells at metaphase

  3. chromosome condensation

  4. stimulation of lymphocyte cell division


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Phytohemagglutinin stimulates the division of T-cells. A mitotic arresting drug such as colchicine is used to collect dividing cells at metaphase and hypotonic treatment swells the cells to permit chromosomes to be visualized.

Which among the following statements signifies the 47,XX, +13 karyotype designation?

  1. A female with 13 extra chromosomes

  2. A female with trisomy 13

  3. A male with trisomy 13

  4. A female with extra material on chromosome 13


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Trisomy 13 is also known as Patau syndrome. It is a genetic disorder in which an individual has three copies of genetic material from chromosome 13, instead of the usual two copies.

Alpha satellite DNA is preferentially localized at

  1. telomeres

  2. stalks of acrocentric chromosomes

  3. centromeres

  4. dark G-bands


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Alpha satellite is a specific form of highly repeated DNA, which is concentrated at centromeres.

A multifactorial trait occurs more often in females than males. A couple have an affected son. Which of the following is true regarding their risk of recurrence?

  1. Recurrence is higher if they had an affected daughter, and is most likely for a future son.

  2. Recurrence is higher if they had an affected daughter, and is most likely for a future daughter.

  3. Recurrence is lower if they had an affected daughter, and is most likely for a future son.

  4. Recurrence is lower if they had an affected daughter, and is most likely for a future daughter.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Since females are more often affected, having an affected son implies greater liability towards the trait. This increases their risk for future offspring. The trait will always be more common in females than males.

Which of the following is not true of G-light bands?

  1. They fluorescence brightly with quinacrine

  2. They are GC-rich

  3. They are rich in expressed genes.

  4. They are loosely packed.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

G-light bands, for the most part, exhibit dull quinacrine fluorescence.

Molecular analysis is performed on the three copies of chromosome 21 in a child with Down syndrome using DNA polymorphisms for which both parents are heterozygous for different alleles. Two of the chromosomes contain same alleles as one of the mother's alleles. Based on this, when did the nondisjunction event most likely occur?

  1. Maternal meiosis I

  2. Maternal meiosis II

  3. Paternal meiosis I

  4. Paternal meiosis II


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

If two copies of chromosome 21 have the same maternal alleles, the nondisjunction must have occurred in maternal meiosis II, when the two identical chromatids normally separate.

Which of the following syndromes is associated with Uniparental disomy for chromosome 15 in which both chromosomes are maternally derived?

  1. Prader-Willi syndrome

  2. Angelman syndrome

  3. Rett syndrome

  4. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Having maternal uniparental disomy for chromosome 15 results in Prader-Willi syndrome. It is caused by the loss of function of genes in a particular region of chromosome 15 & affects many parts of the body.

The one factor known to be associated with nondisjunction is

  1. radiation exposure

  2. advanced maternal age

  3. advanced paternal age

  4. alcohol exposure


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Only advanced maternal age has been conclusively shown to be associated with nondisjunction.

Which of the following is not a postulate of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

  1. No mutation

  2. No more than two alleles at a locus

  3. Random mating with respect to genotype.

  4. No selection on basis of genotype.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium applies to systems with two or more alleles.

Deviation from the Hardy-Weinberg assumption of infinitely large population size results in

  1. genetic lethal

  2. heterozygote advantage

  3. consanguinity

  4. genetic drift


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Genetic drift is the random fluctuation of allele frequencies that can occur in a small population.

A balanced polymorphism occurs when

  1. there is selection against the homozygous recessive individuals

  2. there is selection against heterozygotes

  3. there is selection against all genotypes

  4. there is selection against all homozygotes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A balanced polymorphism occurs when homozygotes are selected relative to heterozygotes.

Which of the following is most likely to prevent extinction of a rare allele in which homozygosity represents a genetic lethal?

  1. New mutation

  2. Genetic drift

  3. Founder effect

  4. Balanced polymorphism


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Extinction of a lethal allele can be prevented by replacement of lost alleles due to new mutation.

Which of the following is required to see a founder effect?

  1. Population bottleneck in which the population is reduced to a relatively small number of breeding individuals.

  2. It is not associated with genetic drift.

  3. It cannot lead to the speciation and subsequent evolution of new species.

  4. Serial founder effects have occurred when populations migrate over long distances.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The founder effect occurs when a population bottleneck occurs leading to an effective increase in the frequency of a previously rare allele.

If two populations are merged, each with different frequencies of an allele at a locus, and randomly mating occurs immediately, how long will it take to achieve a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in the new population?

  1. One generation

  2. Ten generations

  3. Variable depends on allele frequencies

  4. The population will never achieve equilibrium.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

If there is true random mating in the new population, equilibrium will be achieved in one generation.

The translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 is a characteristic of

  1. Kaposi's sarcoma

  2. Li-Fraumeni syndrome

  3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

  4. OSLAM syndrome


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The t(9;22), also called the Philadelphia chromosome, is a characteristic of chronic myelogenous leukemia.

Which of the following does not characterise the tumor suppressor genes?

  1. Transmitted as dominant traits in families

  2. May be associated with loss of heterozygosity in tumors.

  3. Act dominantly in tumor cells.

  4. Associated with two-hit model of carcinogenesis.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Tumor suppressor gene mutations are transmitted in a dominant manner in families, but act recessively in tumor cells,which is why two hits are required in the tumor.

Which among the following explanations regarding the proto-oncogenes is NOT true?

  1. These genes are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances.

  2. These genes also code for proteins associated with cell growth.

  3. Some are activated by gene amplification.

  4. They are originally derived from RNA tumor viruses.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It is a normal gene that can become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression. They are derived from RNA tumor viruses.

The phase of mitosis during which chromosomes condense is

  1. prophase

  2. telophase

  3. metaphase

  4. anaphase


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

It is the first stage of mitosis, during which the chromosomes condense and become visible. The nuclear membrane breaks down & the chromosomes condense during prophase.

Double minute chromatin bodies are indicative of which of the following?

  1. Translocations

  2. Gene amplification

  3. Apoptosis

  4. Inactivation of a tumor suppressor gene


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Double minute chromatin bodies are indicative of gene amplification, one of the mechanisms of oncogene activation.

Genes responsible for hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer encode proteins with which of the following functions?

  1. DNA mismatch repair

  2. Cell membrane receptor

  3. Transcription factor

  4. Cell cycle control


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Due to mutation in one of several genes, HNPCC is involved in DNA mismatch repair.

Consider a family where both father and son have retinoblastoma. DNA analysis from the child's tumor shows only a single allele from the Rb locus on chromosome 13. Both parents are heterozygous in blood, as is the child. Which allele would you expect is preserved in the tumor?

  1. Mother's

  2. Father's

  3. There is a 50:50 chance that it is the mother's or father's allele.

  4. Both alleles would be abnormal due to genetic rearrangement.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The father's allele would be preserved in the tumor. This is a mutant allele, based on the fact that the father has retinoblastoma.

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