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Solved Previous CSAT 2011 Paper - I

Description: CSAT 2011 Paper - I covers exact CSAT syllabus, difficulty level of CSAT exam for CSAT Mains exam, IAS exam, IPS exam, IFS exam, IAS entrance test, IAS practice test, IFS, IPS practice test
Number of Questions: 100
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Consider the following:

  1. Photosynthesis
  2. Respiration
  3. Decay of organic matter
  4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?

  1. 1 and 4

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 2, 3 and 4

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Carbon is released into the atmosphere in several ways such as: Respiration, Decay of animal and plant matter, Burning of fossil fuels such as coal, petroleum products and natural gas, Production of cement, Volcanic eruptions and Metamorphism. Volcanic gases are primarily water vapour, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide, etc.  Photosynthesis is a chemical process that converts carbon dioxide into organic compounds, especially sugars, using the energy from sunlight.

At present, scientists can determine the arrangements or relative position of genes of DNA sequences on a chromosome. how does this knowledge benefit us?

  1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
  2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
  3. It is possible to develop disease resistant animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Significances of genome sequencing:  It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock, to develop disease-resistant animal breeds, to understand the causes of all human diseases, to do newborn genetic screening.  This will enable the rapidly emerging medical fields of Predictive Medicine and Personalized Medicine and will mark a significant leap forward for the clinical genetic revolution. Full genome sequencing is clearly of great importance for research into the basis of genetic disease.

Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal stimulus”?

  1. It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.

  2. It is an intense affirmative action of the government to boost economic activity in the country.

  3. It is Government's intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.

  4. It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Fiscal stimulus- It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country. Government measures, normally involving increased public spending and lower taxation, aimed at giving a positive jolt to economic activity.

Satellites used for telecommunications relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when

  1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
  2. the orbit is circular.
  3. The orbit lies in the place of the Earth’s equator.
  4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. 2 and 4 only

  4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary Earth Orbit - GEO) is a type of geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth\'s equator (0° latitude).

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. A satellite in a synchronous orbit that is both equatorial and circular will appear to be suspended motionless above a point on the orbited planet\'s equator. Statement 4 is incorrect. Geostationary orbit is at an altitude of 22, 236 miles, not km. In km, the altitude comes to be 35,786 km.

India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?

  1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
  2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
  3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 2 and 3

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. All 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The main causes of food inflation are: � Higher Food Prices worldwide � Lower agricultural growth in India compared to the much faster GDP growth � Rising percentage of Middle Class in India which is demanding increasing quantities of better quality food products � High general Inflation � Inefficiency in the Food Supply Chain � Dependence of Indian Agriculture on Monsoon

A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attribute to the “bass effect”. What is “base effect”?

  1. It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops.

  2. It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth.

  3. It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate.

  4. None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given above is correct in this context.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The base effect pertains to low inflation numbers a year ago, which makes even a small increase in the price index now appear much larger. The index is higher this year then the next year inflation figures may be lesser (as base is higher).

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?

  1. They use living organisms ass catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
  2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
  3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A microbial fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy by the catalytic reaction of microorganisms. Among the electrochemically active bacteria are Shewanella putrefaciens, Aeromonas hydrophila. Mediator-less microbial fuel cells can, besides running on wastewater, also derive energy directly from certain aquatic plants. Virtually any organic material could be used to feed the fuel cell, including coupling cells to wastewater treatment plants.

The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

  1. Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.

  2. Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.

  3. Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.

  4. Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The winter stratospheric air over the Antarctic routinely gets colder than the air anywhere else. Because the winter, stratospheric air over most of Antarctica is isolated from warmer, lower altitude air by a strong set of confining winds known as the polar vertex, this air gets so cold that polar stratospheric clouds regularly form between the altitudes of approximately 12 to 25 km. Particles surface in these clouds cause chemical reactions that create even more reactive halogen chemicals.

In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt).

  1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bioasphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
  2. Bioasphalt can be made from nonrenewable resources.
  3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
  4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacting of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. 2 and 4 only

  4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bioasphalt is an asphalt alternative made from non-petroleum based renewable resources.  These sources includes sugar, molasses and rice, corn and potato starches, natural tree and gum resins, natural latex rubber and vegetable oils, lignin, cellulose, palm oil waste, coconut waste, peanut oil waste, canola oil waste, potato starch, dried sewerage effluent and so on. Non-petroleum based bitumen binders can be coloured, which can reduce the temperatures of road surfaces and reduce the urban heat islands.

Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha - merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could it be?

  1. Bhitarkanika

  2. Chandipur-on-sea

  3. Gopalpur-on-sea

  4. Simlipal


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The deltaic region formed by the alluvial deposits of river Brahmani, Baitarani and Dhamara (Bhitarkanika) and the Mahanadi deltaic area, comprising of about 3000 Sq. Km. forms the proposed Bhitarkanika Biosphere Reserve. This deltaic region is a unique bioclimatic zone in a typical geographic situation in the coastal region of Bay of Bengal. It is located in the Kendrapara District of the State of Orissa. The proposed Bhitarkanika Biosphere Reserve covers erstwhile Kanika and Kujang Zamindari area. It includes at present three protected areas namely Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, Bhitarkanika National Park and the Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary. The Mahanadi flows through the states of Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and Jharkhand.

Consider the following:

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Oxides of Nitrogen
  3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission(s) from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2 and 3

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. All 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants are smoke, carbon dioxide, oxides of sulphur and nitrogen and fly ash, etc.

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

  1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
  2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
  3. Establishments of State Finance Commissions.
  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. All 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections, Establishment of State Finance Commissions, bar to interference by court in election matters, power to impose taxes and financial resources.

A “closed economy” is an economy is which

  1. the money supply is fully controlled

  2. deficit financing takes place

  3. only exports take place

  4. neither exports nor imports take place


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An economy that does not interact with the economy of any other country. A closed economy prohibits imports and exports, and prohibits any other country from participating in their stock market.

India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Divident”. This is due to

  1. its high population in the age group below 15 years

  2. its high population in the age group of 15-64 years

  3. its high population in the age group above 65 years

  4. its high total population


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population. This usually occurs late in the demographic transition when the fertility rate falls and the youth dependency rate declines. During this demographic window of opportunity, output per capita rises. India is regarded as a country with "Demographic Dividend" because of its high population in the age group of 15-64 years (working age people or younger people).

Regarding “Carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. The carbon credit system was ratified in conjuction with the Kyoto Protocol.

  2. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota.

  3. The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbondioxide emission.

  4. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) A carbon credit is a generic term for any tradable certificate or permit representing the right to emit one ton of carbon or carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e). The mechanism was formalised in the Kyoto Protocol, an international agreement between more than 170 countries. (ii) The developed country would be given credits for meeting its emission reduction targets, while the developing country would receive the capital investment and clean technology or beneficial change in land use. (iii) This carbon credit system is to limit the emission of carbon dioxide. (iv) There are many companies that sell carbon credits to commercial and individual customers who are interested in lowering their carbon footprint on a voluntary basis.

Consider the following actions which the Government can take:

  1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
  2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
  3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 3 only

  4. 1 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Current account deficit can be reduced by devaluating the domestic currency (boosting export), increase in the export subsidy (boosting export) and adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

In terms of economy, the visit of foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

  1. export

  2. import

  3. production

  4. consumption


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Sports tourism or for that matter any kind of tourism is an export industry because foreign visitors who travel to a country purchase the "touristic experience" of that country. They pay for it with their money from their country.

When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because

  1. Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.

  2. Roots are starved of energy.

  3. Tree is infected by soil microbes.

  4. Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In vascular plants, phloem is the living tissue that carries organic nutrients (known as photosynthate), in particular, glucose, a sugar, to all parts of the plant or particularly non-photosynthetic parts of the plant such as the roots.  Because phloem tubes sit on the outside of the xylem in most plants, a tree or other plant can be effectively killed by stripping away the bark in a ring on the trunk or stem. With the phloem destroyed, nutrients cannot reach the roots, and the tree/plant will die.

Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?

  1. It is multi-point destination-based system of taxation.

  2. It is a tax levied on value additoin at each stage of transaction in production/distribution chain.

  3. It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer.

  4. It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

VAT is multistage sale tax with credit for taxes paid of business purchases. It is non-cascading. VAT is the indirect tax on the consumption of the goods, paid by its original producers upon the change in goods or upon the transfer of the goods to its ultimate consumers. It is based on the value of the goods, added by the transferor. It is the tax in relation to the difference of the value added by the transferor and not just a profit. Option (4) is incorrect. VAT is a State subject, for which the States are independent in taking decisions. At the same time, the States have freedom for making appropriate variations in their respective State laws consistent with this basic design.

The “New Start” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?

  1. It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation.

  2. It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit.

  3. It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation.

  4. It is multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotioin of trade.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

New START (for Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms. It was signed on 8 April, 2010 in Prague, and, after ratification, entered into force on 5 February, 2011. It is expected to last at least until 2021.

With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:

  1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947.
  2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957.
  3. Customs Act, 1962.
  4. Indian Forest Act, 1927.

Which of the above acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

  1. 10 and 3 only

  2. 2, 3 and 4 only

  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. None of the above Acts


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

All above acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country.

Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of

  1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
  2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
  3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 2 only

  4. 3 only


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of the photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps is concerned with Mars, not Earth.

Three of the following criteria have contributed to recognition of Western Ghats- Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

  1. Species richness
  2. Vegetration density
  3. Endemism
  4. Ethno-botanical importance
  5. Threat perception
  6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

  1. 1, 2 and 6

  2. 2, 4 and 6

  3. 1, 3 and 5

  4. 3, 4 and 6


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity (species richness) that is under threat from humans. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

  1. Empirical liberalism

  2. Existentialism

  3. Darwin's theory of evolution

  4. Dialectical materialism


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of Dialectical Materialism. Dialectical materialism is a strand of Marxism synthesising Hegel\'s dialectics and Ludwig Andreas Feuerbach\'s materialism. According to certain followers of Karl Marx, it is the philosophical basis of Marxism, although this remains a controversial assertion due to the disputed status of science and naturalism in Marx\'s thought. The basic idea of dialectical materialism is that every economic order grows to a state of maximum efficiency, while at the same time developing internal contradictions or weaknesses that contribute to its decay.

A layer in the Earth's atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

  1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
  2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Ozone layer is present in Stratosphere, not Ionosphere. Statement 2 is also incorrect. When a radio wave reaches the ionosphere, the electric field in the wave forces the electrons in the ionosphere into oscillation at the same frequency as the radio wave. Some of the radio-frequency energy is given up to this resonant oscillation. The oscillating electrons will then either be lost to recombination or will re-radiate the original wave energy. Total refraction can occur when the collision frequency of the ionosphere is less than the radio frequency, and if the electron density in the ionosphere is great enough.

If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest this is because.

  1. the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.

  2. propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability.

  3. the rain forest species are slowgrowing.

  4. exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The rainforest soil is often of a reddish color, rather than brown. Nutrient levels in the soil are very low. This can be attributed to the clays in the rainforest soil are less chemically active and therefore less efficient at retaining nutrients and at depths of just a few centimetres below the soil surface, there is practically no organic matter at all.

Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best Page 6 represents an important difference between the two?

  1. FII helps brings better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital.

  2. FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.

  3. FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market.

  4. FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Option 1 is wrong because it changes the roles of FII with FDI. Option 3 is wrong because while the FDI flows into the primary market, the FII flows into secondary market. Option 4 is wrong again because FDI is considered more stable than FII. Hence, option B is correct, because FII helps in increasing capital availability and FDI mostly sector specific.

The Himalayan range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?

  1. It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth.

  2. It is confluence of different biogeographical zones.

  3. Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region.

  4. It has less human interference.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The richness of species diversity in the Himalayas is due to the occurrence of species of different biogeographic regions like Irano-Turanian, Mediterranean, Indo-Chinese, Indian, Malaysian, Eastern Asiatic, Circumboreal, Australian, Amazonian, Brazilian, Andean, North American.

In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the

  1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
  2. nutrients to the surface.
  3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 only

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 3 only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Upwelling is an oceanographic phenomenon that involves wind-driven motion of dense, cooler, and usually nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-depleted surface water. The increased availability in upwelling regions results in high levels of primary productivity and thus fishery production. Approximately 25% of the total global marine fish catches come from five upwellings that occupy only 5% of the total ocean area. Upwellings that are driven by coastal currents or diverging open ocean have the greatest impact on nutrient-enriched waters and global fishery yields.

The Function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

  1. Slow down the speed of neutrons.

  2. Increase the speed of neutrons.

  3. Coll down the reactor.

  4. Stop the nucleus reaction.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The reaction can be controlled by using neutron poisons, which absorb excess neutrons such as boron and cadmium rods and neutron moderators, which reduce the velocity of fast neutrons.  Commonly used moderators include regular (light) water (75% of the world\'s reactors), solid graphite (20% of reactors) and heavy water (5% of reactors). Beryllium has also been used in some experimental types, and hydrocarbons have been suggested as another possibility.

In India, if a religious sect/ community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

  1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational Institutions.
  2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
  3. It can derive from the Prime Minister's 15- points programee.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Fundamental Right)  15 point Programme for minorities is a programme approved by Indian government in 2006 for welfare of religious minorities.  The President of India doesn't nominate a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

  1. The President of India

  2. The Parliament of India

  3. The Prime Minister of India

  4. The Union Finance Minister


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The constitution states that no money shall be withdrawn from the consolidated fund of India except under appropriation made by law. Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced in parliament to provide for appropriation. The appropriation bill becomes the appropriation act after it is assented to by the President. This act authorises the payment from consolidated of India.

In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

  1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
  2. It is sourced from North sea.
  3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 2 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Brent crude is the biggest of the many major classifications of crude oil consisting of Brent Crude, Brent Sweet Light Crude, Oseberg, Ekofisk, and Forties. Brent crude is sourced from the North Sea. Brent blend is a light crude oil, though not as light as WTI. It contains approximately 0.37% of sulphur, classifying it as sweet crude, yet again not as sweet as WTI. Brent is suitable for production of gasoline and middle distillates.

A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?

  1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
  2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
  3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumer.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Many of the random compounds created when oils are hydrogenated are "trans fats". These are unnatural compounds, which are known to be detrimental to cardiovascular health. On the other hand animal fats are relatively good for health.

With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?

  1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
  2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
  3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Mega food park scheme aims at facilitating achievement of the Vision 2015 of Ministry to raise: Processing of perishables in the country from the existing 6% to 20%, Value addition from 20% to 35%, Share in global food trade from 1.5% to 3% by the year 2015. Core Objectives include: • Creation of enabling infrastructure/facilities and requisite backward linkages to enable entrepreneurs to set up large number of food processing units • Increasing the level of food processing thus reducing wastages and ensuring value addition • Increasing returns for all stakeholders including farmers/producers of the region.

India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?

  1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
  2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
  3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995:

  1. Prevention and Early Detection of Disabilities 
  2. Education  The appropriate Governments and the local authorities shall -  a. Ensure that every child with a disability has access to free education in an appropriate environment till he attains the age of eighteen years;  b. endeavour to promote the integration of students with disabilities in the normal schools; c. Promote setting up of special schools in Government and private sector for those in need of special education, in such a manner that children with disabilities living in any part of the country have access to such schools;  d. Endeavour to equip the special schools for children with disabilities with vocational training facilities. 
  3. Employment  Appropriate Governments shall A. identify posts, in the establishments, which can be reserved for the persons with disability;  B. at periodical intervals not exceeding three years, review the list of posts identified and up-date the list taking into consideration the developments in technology. 
  4. Affirmative Action  The appropriate Governments and local authorities shall by notification frame schemes in favour of persons with disabilities, for the preferential allotment of land at concessional rates for - 
  5. Non-Discrimination  The appropriate Governments and the local authorities shall, within the limits of their economic capacity and development, provide for -  a. ramps in public building;  b. adaptation of toilets for wheel chair users;  c. braille symbols and auditory signals in elevators or lifts;  d. ramps in hospitals, primary health centres and other medical care and rehabilitation institutions.

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

  1. To vote in public elections.

  2. To develop the scientific temper.

  3. To safeguard public property.

  4. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Fundamental Duties of India are as follows - 

  1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; 
  2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; 
  3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; 
  4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; 
  5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; 
  6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; 
  7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; 
  8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; 
  9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence; 
  10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement

With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:

  1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
  2. India wants to plug the vacuum created Page 8 by the termination of Cold war.
  3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

India\'s "Look East" policy was developed and enacted during the governments of Prime Ministers P.V. Narasimha Rao (1991 - 1996) and Atal Bihari Vajpayee (1998 - 2004). Along with economic liberalisation and moving away from Cold War-era policies and activities, India\'s strategy has focused on forging close economic and commercial ties, increasing strategic and security cooperation and the emphasis of historic cultural and ideological links. India sought to create and expand regional markets for trade, investments and industrial development. It also began strategic and military cooperation with nations concerned by the expansion of China\'s economic and strategic influence.

All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

  1. Contingency Fund of India

  2. Public Account

  3. Consolidated Fund of India

  4. Deposit and Advances Fund


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Subject to the assignment of certain taxes to the States, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loan raised by Government and all money received by the Government in the repayment of loans shall form consolidated fund of India.

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development.

  2. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings.

  3. It ensures transparency in financial administration.

  4. None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given above is correct in this context.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Functions of the Finance Commission can be explicitly stated as: 

  1. Distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Centre and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes 
  2. Determine factors governing Grants-in Aid to the states and the magnitude of the same. 
  3. Work with the State Finance Commissions and suggest measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of the States so as to provide additional resources to Panchayats and Municipalities in the state. 
  4. Any other matter referred to by the President in the interest of sound finance.

With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:

  1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
  2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
  3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insture who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Union Cabinet gave its approval for launching of Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY), from 2nd October 2007, covering the death and permanent disability for the benefit of rural landless households.

The scheme provides for insurance of head of the family or an earning member of the family of rural landless household between the age of 18 to 59 years against natural death as well as accidental death and partial/permanent disability. Two children of the beneficiaries studying in 9th to 12th Standard will get Rs. 300/- per quarter per child.

Microfinance is the provision of financial service to people of low-income groups.This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under microfinance is/are:

  1. Credit facilities
  2. Savings facilities
  3. Insurance facilities
  4. Fund Transfer facilities

Select the correct answer using the codes gives below the lists:

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 4 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Microfinance includes basic financial services including small loans, savings accounts, fund transfers and insurance. Alongside non-financial services such as business training, microfinance assists people living in poverty who wouldn\'t usually qualify for regular banking services because they have no form of collateral or formal identification.

Consider the following:

  1. Right to education.
  2. Right to equal access to public service.
  3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/ Human Rights under “ Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a declaration adopted by the United Nations General Assembly (10 December 1948 at Palais de Chaillot, Paris).
Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights include:

  1. Rights of the individual, such as the right to life and the prohibition of slavery
  2. Rights of the individual in civil and political society.
  3. Spiritual, public and political freedoms such as freedom of religion and freedom of association.
  4. Social, economic and cultural rights

Recently the USA decided to support India's membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangements”. What is the difference between them?

  1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assiting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
  2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and Page 9 North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Australian Group deals in Biological and Chemical weapons while Wassenaar Arrangement deals in conventional arms, thus both don't have identical goals. Australia Group has 41 members, including all Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) members except Mexico, the European Commission, all 27 Member States of the European Union, Croatia, Ukraine and Argentina. There is not even a single member from Africa.

Among the following which are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

  1. Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households.

  2. Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households.

  3. Adult members of households of all backward communities.

  4. Adult members of any household.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act aims at enhancing the livelihood security of people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of wage-employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?

  1. It was a non-violent movement.

  2. It was led by Mahatma Gandhi.

  3. It was a spontaneous movement.

  4. It did not attract the labour class in general.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

All India Congress Committee met at Bombay and passed the famous Quit India Resolution and proposed the starting of non-violent mass struggle under Gandhi's leadership. Peasants and workers were at heart of movement. Hence, option 4 is the required answer.

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an India animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

  1. Indian wild buffalo

  2. Indian wild ass

  3. Indian wild boar

  4. Indian gazelle


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary also known as the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat state of India. Spread over 4954 km², it is the largest wildlife sanctuary in India. The wildlife sanctuary was established in 1972 and came under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1973. The sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the endangered wild ass sub-species Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.  The main threat faced by the sanctuary is the illegal salt panning activity in the area. 25% of India\'s salt supply comes from planning activity in the area.

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions.

  1. Making Zamindar's positois stronger vis-a-vis the ryot.

  2. Making East India Company and overload of Zamindars.

  3. Making judicial system more efficient.

  4. None of the (1), (2) and (3) above.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Lord Cornwallis had increased the litigation and the main reason for this was Court Fee, which was removed. Lawyers were to prescribe their fees. Ordinary people could sue the Government servants if they committed mistakes. None of the option is suitable to give the reason of the question. Hence, option (d) is the answer.

The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

  1. Ice is a bad conductor of heat.

  2. Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost.

  3. The density of water is maximum at 4oC.

  4. None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given above is correct.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Suppose temperature of water falling from 10 to 0 degree centigrade. When temperature of water falls upto 4 0 C, density of water will be maximum and water start sinking. Further temperature fall from 4 0C to 0 0C, density of water decreases continuously. In such condition water dose not sink and converted into ice and float on surface of water. At the same time 4 degree centigrade of temperature of interior water is maintained because ice is bad conductor of heat.

A genetically engineered form of brinjal (known as Bt-brinjal) has been developed. Its objective is to

  1. make it pest-resistant

  2. improve its taste and nutritive qualities

  3. make it drought-reistant

  4. make its shelf-life longer


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Bt-brinjal is a suite of transgenic brinjals (also known as an eggplant or aubergine) created by inserting a crystal gene (Cry1Ac) from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into the genome of various brinjal cultivars. The Bt-brinjal has been developed to give resistance against lepidopteron insects.

Southeast Asia has captivates the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?

  1. It was the hot theatre during the Second World War.

  2. Its location between the Asian powers of China and India.

  3. It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period.

  4. Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geo-strategically significant region because of its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha.

  1. the Budget is modified and presented again.

  2. the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions.

  3. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign.

  4. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Union Budget of India, referred to as the Annual Financial Statement in Article 112 of the Constitution of India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India, presented each year on the last working day of February by the Finance Minister of India in Parliament. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are jointly accountable to the Lok Sabha. If a policy statement like Annual Budget fails, it is tantamount to loss of confidence of the Parliament for the government.

India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. for this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/ explanations?

  1. As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times.

  2. The rules of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddish monks in this context.

  3. Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages.

  4. Both a and b are convincing explanations in this context.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Though India's ship-building technology was quite advanced, it is not that other countries lagged behind. Before the discovery of the monsoon winds by Hippalus in AD 45-47, the mariners of the east coast of India were aware of the monsoon wind and currents and used them for maritime trade. The maritime trade from India to Southeast Asia was a seasonal phenomenon. This shows how the monsoon wind and currents favoured mariners during their onward and return voyages to Southeast Asia. Even the Roman historian Strabo mentions that monsoon was known and manipulated for trade in his time.

What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W.S.Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?

  1. To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons.

  2. To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary.

  3. To facilitate a discussion on India's Independence in the British Parliament.

  4. To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Sir William Wedderburn and W S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 to agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Common.

Biodiverstiy forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

  1. Soil formation
  2. Prevention of soil erosion
  3. Recycling of waste
  4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using thew codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 2, 3 and 4 only

  3. 1 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Significance of diverse biodiversity:  Reducing soil erosion, preventing flooding, maintain purity of water, tempering climate fluctuation, increasing productivity of soil, recycling of waste, soil formation, pollination of crops, etc.

With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?

  1. Funds useed to support the India Office in London.
  2. Funds used to pay salaries nad pension of British personnel.
  3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the Correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In British India, apart from existing imports and exports, there was also a particular amount of money which colonial India contributed towards administration, maintenance of the army, war expenses, pensions to retired officers and other expenses accrued by Britain towards maintenance of her colony. These were known as "Home charges" and were paid for almost entirely by India. The Home charges was made of three components: Interest payable on Indian debt Interest on the railways Civil and military charges

Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?

  1. Aspartame is a s sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes.

  2. When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation.

  3. Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after investigation into the body , it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories.

  4. Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Aspartame, an artificial sweetener, is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose, or table sugar. Due to this property, even though aspartame produces four kilocalories of energy per gram when metabolized, the quantity of aspartame needed to produce a sweet taste is so small that its caloric contribution is negligible.

Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th Century?

  1. Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products.

  2. Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas.

  3. Rise of a large number of money lenders traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in trible areas.

  4. The complete disruption of the old agrarian order to the tribal communities.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. It used the term 'tribal products'. Statement 2 is incorrect. NOT in all areas, the impact of foreign missionaries was seen. Statement 3 is incorrect. This option is also not correct because not all areas saw the rise of moneylenders. Statement 4 is correct because it includes the foreign interference in the indigenous world of their own which dismantled the structure that existed since centuries.

Recently “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?

  1. It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.

  2. It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration.

  3. It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety.

  4. It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Oilzapper developed by TERI (The Energy and Resource Institute, Govt of India) after seven years of research work and partly supported by the DBT (Department of Biotechnology), Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, the Oilzapper is essentially a cocktail of five different bacterial strains that are immobilized and mixed with a carrier material (powdered corncob). Much as its savvy name suggests, the Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon compounds present in crude oil and oily sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by oil refineries) and converts them into harmless CO2 and water. The Oilzapper is neatly packed into sterile polythene bags and sealed aseptically for safe transport. The shelf life of the product is three months at ambient temperature.

What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-fi devices?

  1. Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band.

  2. Bluetooth is used for wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only.

  3. When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other.

  4. The statements (1) and (2) given above are correct in this context.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Bluetooth uses the microwave radio frequency spectrum in the 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz range. Wi-Fi is based upon IEEE 802.11 standards that use 2.4, 3.6 and 5 GHz frequency bands. Statement 2 is incorrect. Wi-Fi is intended for resident equipment and its applications. The category of applications is outlined as WLAN, the wireless local area networks. Bluetooth was intended for non-resident equipment and its applications. The category of applications is outlined as the wireless personal area network (WPAN). Statement 3 is incorrect. Bluetooth doesn’t require line of sight between communicating devices. Statement 4 is incorrect. As statement 2 is incorrect, so this option is also incorrect.

What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?

  1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
  2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
  3. A CFL is less energy-efficient is compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. CFLs contain mercury and phosphor whereas an LED lamp (LED light bulb) is a solid-state lamp that uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) as the source of light. The LEDs involved may be conventional semiconductor light-emitting diodes, to organic LEDs (OLED), or polymer light-emitting diodes (PLED) device. Statement 2 is incorrect. LED lamps offer long service life and high energy efficiency, but initial costs are higher than those of fluorescent lamps. Statement 3 is correct. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp. 

Among the following states, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of productio, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

  1. Andhra Pradesh

  2. Arunachal Pradesh

  3. Madhya Pradesh

  4. Uttar Pradesh


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Orchids are found in our country with Himalayas as their main home and others scattered in Eastern and Western Ghats. The following is the distribution of orchids species in different regions of India. North-Western Himalayas  North-Eastern India  Western Ghats  North-Eastern India owing to its peculiar gradient and varied climatic conditions contains largest group of temperate, sub-tropical orchids.

With reference to the period of India freedom struggle which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?

  1. Complete Independence for India.
  2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
  3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The "Nehru Report" (1928) was a memorandum outlining a proposed new Dominion (see dominion status) constitution for India. It was prepared by a committee of the All Parties Conference chaired by Motilal Nehru with his son Jawaharlal acting as secretary. Some of the important elements of the report are:

  1. Dominion status 
  2. Not separate electorate but joint electorate with reserved seat for minorities
  3. Linguistic provinces 
  4. 19 Fundamental rights 
  5. Responsible government at centre and provinces

Consider the following statements : In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee.

  1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
  2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
  3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for constitution of metropolitan planning committee to prepare a draft development plan. 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides for the function of such committee in relation to planning and coordination for metropolitan areas.

Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conversion of flora?

  1. Biosphere Reserve

  2. Botanical Garden

  3. National Park

  4. Wildlife Sanctuary


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In-situ conservation, the conservation of species in their natural habitats, is considered the most appropriate way of conserving biodiversity. Conserving the areas where populations of species exist naturally is an underlying condition for the conservation of biodiversity. That\'s why protected areas form a central element of any national strategy to conserve biodiversity. These include national parks, sanctuaries, biosphere reserve, nature reserve, natural monuments, and cultural landscapes, etc.  Zoos and Botanical gardens are the most conventional methods of ex-situ conservation.

A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?

  1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
  2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
  3. Thickness of BD is 2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  4. mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Blu-ray Disc (official abbreviation BD) is anoptical disc storage medium. The name Blu-ray Disc refers to the blue laser used to read the disc, which allows information to be stored at a greater density than is possible with the longer-wavelength red laser used for DVDs. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.  Parameters  Blu-ray  Storage capacity---25GB (single-layer) and 50GB (dual-layer)  Laser wavelength------405nm (blue laser)  Numerical aperture (NA)--0.85  Disc diameter------120mm  Disc thickness----1.2mm  DVD  Storage capacity---4.7GB (single-layer) and 8.5GB (dual-layer)  Laser wavelength---650nm (red laser)  Numerical aperture (NA)---0.60  Disc diameter----120mm  Disc thickness----1.2mm 

Regarding the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. It can grant loans to any country.

  2. It can grant loans to only developed countries.

  3. It grants loans to only member countries.

  4. It can grant loans to the central bank of a country.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 187 countries, working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world. The IMF monitors the world\'s economies, lends to members in economic difficulty, and provides technical assistance.

The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by

  1. Universal law

  2. Universal Truth

  3. Universal Faith

  4. Universal Soul


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Jainism does not support belief in a creator deity. According to Jain doctrine, the universe and its constituents - soul, matter, space, time, and principles of motion have always existed. All the constituents and actions are governed by universal natural laws.

What is the difference between “vote on account” and “interim budget”?

  1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
  2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

During an election year it is not practical for the ruling Government or for the new Government taking charge after the elections to prepare or debate on the full budget and pass it before the new financial year begins. Hence, the outgoing Government would announce an interim budget or vote on account in February which will be followed by a full budget by the new Government in a few months\' time after the elections. The Interim Budget will include a report card on the income and expenses made last year and the proposed expenses likely to be made in the next few months until the new government takes over. Vote on account empower Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance for part of any financial year, pending the completion of the budgetary process. Normally the vote on account is taken for two months and is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion.

A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is

  1. O positive

  2. A positive

  3. B positive

  4. Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

AB positive partner forms two type of gametes; A positive and B positive.  O negative partner forms only single type of gamete O negative.  Two type of zygote formation occur A+O- (A positive) and B+O- (B positive). The blood group of the adopted son will be O positive. 

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

  1. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out.

  2. The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster.

  3. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami.

  4. The magrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Many of the previous tsunamis were tamed by the coral reefs before hitting the coast, where they were absorbed by a dense layer of red mangrove trees. These flexible trees, with long branches growing right down into the sand below the surface of the sea, absorb the shock of tsunamis. Behind the red mangrove trees, there is a second layer of black mangrove trees, which are taller and slow down the waves.

What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?

  1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
  2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

First Non-Cooperation. Because of drought in 1918, the crops failed in Kheda district of Gujarat. According to revenue code, if the yield was less than one fourth the normal produce, the farmers were entitled to remission. The authorities refused to grant remission.

Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?

  1. It greatly increases the crop production.

  2. It makes some soils impermeable.

  3. It raises the water table.

  4. It fills the air spaces in the soil with water.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Salinization is a process that results from:  High levels of salt in the soils  Landscape features allow salts to become mobile (Movement of water table).  Climatic trends favour accumulation.  Human activities such as land clearing, aquaculture activities, irrigation, and the salting of icy roads The consequences of salinity are  � salt makes some soils impermeable that have detrimental effects on plant growth and yield  � damage to infrastructure (roads, bricks, corrosion of pipes and cables)  � reduction of water quality for users, sedimentation problems  � soil erosion ultimately, when crops are too strongly affected by the amounts of salts.  Salinity is an important land degradation problem. Soil salinity can be reduced by leaching soluble salts out of soil with excess irrigation water. Soil salinity control involves water table control and flushing in combination with tile drainage or another form of subsurface drainage.

The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

  1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
  2. Threatened plant and animal species.
  3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 3

  2. 2 only

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 3 only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is widely recognized as the most comprehensive, objective global approach for evaluating the conservation status of plant and animal species. The goals of the IUCN Red List are to: Identify and document those species most in need of conservation attention if global extinction rates are to be reduced; and Provide a global index of the state of change of biodiversity.

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal booms in the sea waters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

  1. Discharge of nutrients from the estauraries.
  2. Run-off from the land rung the monsoon.
  3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Algae require warmth, sunlight, and nutrients to grow and reproduce, so they live in the upper 60 to 90 meters (200 to 300 feet) of ocean water. An increase in nutrients also may be caused by activities of humans, such as runoff from animal farms or fertilized croplands and lawns, or atmospheric deposition of sulfur and nitrogen compounds or oxides derived from the burning of fossil fuel. These nutrients lead to blooms in coastal waters to a greater extent than in the open ocean. Upwellings bring nutrient-rich waters to the top. This increase in nutrients can trigger algae blooms.

Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

  1. Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man.

  2. The good of individual is contained in the good of all.

  3. The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life.

  4. All the statements (1), (2) and (3) are correct in this context.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi gives us a summary of the teachings of Unto This Last as he understood it:

  1. The good of the individual is contained in the good of all.
  2. A lawyer\'s work has the same value as the barber\'s, as all have the same right of earning their livelihood from their work.
  3. A life of labour, i.e. the life of the tiller of the soil and the handicraftsman is the life worth living.

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for

  1. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India movement.

  2. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference.

  3. Leading a contigent of Indian National Army.

  4. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawahalal Nehru.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Usha Mehta actively supported the Quit India Movement and was an important member of a small group, which run the congress radio. Parameters 

Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of ewconomic concern?

  1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
  2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Teaser loans are considered an aspect of subprime lending, as they are usually offered to low-income home buyers. Unfortunately, when these borrowers try to refinance the loan before the rate increases, most will not qualify for standard mortgages. This leaves borrowers with increased monthly payments, which many cannot afford. This method of loaning is considered risky, as default rates are high. Statement 2 is incorrect. It has nothing to do with the experience of the entrepreneurs.

With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Fertilizer/ nutrient loss can be reduced.
  2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
  3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:
  1. Drip irrigation, also known as trickle irrigation or micro-irrigation, is an irrigation method which saves water and fertilizer by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either onto the soil surface or directly onto the root zone, through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters.
    2. This method is also applicable in farms, commercial greenhouses, and residential gardens.
    1. Drip irrigation may help to achieve water conservation by reducing evaporation and deep drainage when compared to other types of irrigation.

La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from EI Nino?

  1. La Nia is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas EI Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  2. El Nino has adverse effect on southwest monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/ correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. El Niño/La Niña-Southern Oscillation, or ENSO, is a quasi-periodic climate pattern that occurs across the tropical Pacific Ocean roughly every five years. It is characterised by variations in the temperature of the surface of the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean—warming or cooling known as El Niño and La Niña, respectively. The two variations are coupled: the warm oceanic phase, El Niño, accompanies high air surface pressure in the western Pacific, while the cold phase, La Niña, accompanies low air surface pressure in the western Pacific. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Direct effects of El Niño resulting in drier conditions occur in parts of Southeast Asia and Northern Australia, increasing bush fires and worsening haze and decreasing air quality dramatically. Drier than normal conditions are also generally observed in Queensland, inland Victoria, inland New South Wales and eastern Tasmania from June to August. During La Niña years, the formation of tropical cyclones, along with the subtropical ridge position, shifts westward across the western Pacific ocean, which increases the landfall threat to China.

An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth.

  1. does not exist at such distance.

  2. is neutralized by the attraction of the moon.

  3. provides the necessary speed for its steady motion.

  4. provides the necessary acceleration for its motion.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An artificial satellite moving round the Earth in a circular orbit possesses an acceleration, which is constant in magnitude but changing in direction,. The artificial satellite revolves round the Earth under centripetal acceleration. The launched satellite should have the speed enough so that gravity doesn't bring the satellite back to the Earth, but no so great that it escapes in the space. It means the speed provided by the rocket is the source of centrifugal force, and the Earth's attraction holds it from  moving away from this centrifugal force.

Economic growth is usually coupled with

  1. Deflation

  2. Inflation

  3. Stagflation

  4. Hyperinflation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Economic growth is usually coupled with inflation. There has been considerable debate on the existence and nature of the inflation and growth relationship. Some consensus exists suggesting that macroeconomic stability, specifically defined as low inflation, is positively related to economic growth.

Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

  1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
  2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The salient features of the Disinvestment Policy are:  Citizens have every right to own part of the shares of Public Sector Undertakings.  Public Sector Undertakings are the wealth of the Nation and this wealth should rest in the hands of the people.  While pursuing disinvestment, Government has to retain majority shareholding, i.e. at least 51% and management control of the Public Sector Undertakings.  Use of Disinvestment Proceeds  The income from the fund is to be used for the following broad investment objectives:  (a) 75% to finance selected social sector schemes, which promote education, health and employment  (b) 25% to meet the capital investment requirements of profitable and revivable CPSEs that yield adequate returns, in order to enlarge their capital base to finance expansion/diversification

Whats is the difference between asteroids and comets?

  1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
  2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
  3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Asteroids are rocky and metallic objects that orbit the Sun but are too small to be considered planets. A large majority of known asteroids orbit in the main asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter or co-orbital with Jupiter (the Jupiter Trojans).  A comet is an icy, small Solar System body that, when close enough to the Sun, displays a visible coma (a thin, fuzzy, temporary atmosphere) and sometimes also a tail. These phenomena are both due to the effects of solar radiation and the solar wind upon the nucleus of the comet. Comet's nuclei are themselves loose collections of ice, dust, and small rocky particles.

Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth?

  1. Promoting Self-Help Groups.
  2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
  3. Implementing the Right to Education Act.

Select the Correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a declaration adopted by the United Nations General Assembly (10 December 1948 at Palais de Chaillot, Paris).  Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights include: 

  1. Rights of the individual, such as the right to life and the prohibition of slavery 
  2. Rights of the individual in civil and political society. 
  3. Spiritual, public and political freedoms such as freedom of religion and freedom of association. 
  4. Social, economic and cultural rights

Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

  1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
  2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The higher speed and greater persistence of the Westerlies in the Southern Hemisphere are caused by the difference in the atmospheric pressure patterns as well as its variation from that of Northern Hemisphere. The landmass in the southern hemisphere is comparatively less and average pressure decreases more rapidly on the poleward. Statement 2 is incorrect. Coriolis force is strongest in polar regions, zero at equator and at intermediate levels, it varies directly as the Sine of the latitude.

The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to

  1. More liquidity in the market.

  2. Less liquidity in the market.

  3. No change in the liquidity in the market.

  4. Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Bank rate, also referred to as the discount rate, is the rate of interest which a central bank charges on the loans and advances that it extends to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries. Changes in the bank rate are often used by central banks to control the money supply or liquidity. Liquidity of economy is inversely proportional to bank rate.

In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

  1. Commercial Banks

  2. Cooperative Banks

  3. Regional Rural Banks

  4. Microfinance Institutions


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Flow of institutional credit to agriculture:  Commercial banks-66 %  Co-operative banks-25%  Regional rural banks-9% 

Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greately reduced by which of the following?

  1. Deepeing the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
  2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Strait of Malacca is a narrow, 805 km (500 mile) stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula (Peninsular Malaysia) and the Indonesian island of Sumatra. From an economic and strategic perspective, the Strait of Malacca is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world. The strait is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, linking major Asian economies such as India, China, Japan and South Korea. The maximum size of a vessel that can make passage through the Strait is referred to as Malaccamax. The strait is not deep enough (at 25 metres or 82 feet) to permit some of the largest ships (mostly oil tankers) to use it. A ship that exceeds Malaccamax will typically use the Lombok Strait, Makassar Strait, Sibutu Passage and Mindoro Strait instead. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea can save around 960 kilometres (600 mi) from the journey from the Indian Ocean to the Pacific.

The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

  1. Paddy and cotton

  2. Wheat and Jute

  3. Paddy and Jute

  4. Wheat and Cotton


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Rice is grown almost throughout the year in hot and humid region of eastern and southern part of India. But in the northern and hilly parts of the country, only summer crop is grown.  Jute is also crop of hot and humid climate. Next to cotton, jute is the second important fibre crop of India. 

In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
  2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Growth rate of GDP  05-06 - 9.5  06-07- 9.7  07-08-9.2  08-09-6.7  09-10-7.2  Growth rate of per capita income:  05-06 - 7.6  06-07- 7.9  07-8.1  08-09-3.7  09-10-5.3

The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

  1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
  2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Commercial airliners typically cruise in the lower reaches of the stratosphere. Because the temperature in the tropopause and lower stratosphere remains constant (or slightly increases) with increasing altitude, there is very little convective turbulence or vertical wind at these altitudes. There is no dust particles and water vapour in the lower stratosphere. Hence, weather phenomenon doesn't take place in lower stratosphere. Stratosphere contains ozone layer, which absorbs ultra-violet radiation. 

What could be the main reason/ reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?

  1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
  2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The desert occurs in two broad belts viz. at 20°30° north and south of the Equator along the tropics of cancer and Carpricon. The desert areas normally developed under the influence of high pressure areas. The hot air at the equator would rise and spread north and south before cooling and it would condense and release its moisture over the tropical zones. This leads to development of an equatorial zone of low atmospheric pressure. The two tropical zones are at high pressure and Nearer to the poles are two pressure belts of cold. Now as the denser air sinks towards the ground to the subtropical high pressure belts, wind is created which is hot and complete lacking of moisture. Statement 2 is wrong. Eurasian desert belt is related to cold currents, not warm currents.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Biodivesity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
  2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The increase in species richness or biodiversity that occurs from the poles to the tropics, often referred to as the latitudinal gradient in species diversity (LDG), is one of the most widely recognized patterns in ecology.  Species diversity varies systematically across the globe with latitude, longitude, and altitude (or its equivalent, depth, in the oceans). The trend toward higher species diversity in the tropics is perhaps the most conspicuous biogeographic pattern in nature. In most marine groups, diversity is maximal in the Indo-West Pacific.  Many mountain ecosystems are host to higher species richness and levels of endemism than adjacent lowlands. Mountains at lower altitudes can support exceptional biodiversity, due to compression of a wide range of ecosystems into a relatively short distance. Mountains also often provide islands of suitable habitat, isolated from unfavourable surrounding lowlands.

What is “Virtual Private Network”?

  1. It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization.

  2. It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted.

  3. It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider.

  4. None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given above is a correctly description of Virtual Private Network.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure way of connecting to a private Local Area Network at a remote location, using the Internet or any unsecure public network to transport the network data packets privately, using encryption.

The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to

  1. Uplift of folded Himalayan series.

  2. Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas.

  3. Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains.

  4. Both (1) and (2) above.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Brahmaputra originates near Mt. Kalias and is known to take a U-turn near Mount Namcha Barwa. This U-turn is also known as Great Bend. The U turn is because of the 1800 bend of the Himalyan structural trends.

A state in India has the following characteristics:

  1. Its northern part is arid and semiaried.
  2. Its central part produces cotton.
  3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?

  1. Andhra Pradesh

  2. Gujarat

  3. Karnataka

  4. Tamil Nadu


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Central part of Gujarat is a major cotton growing area. Surendranagar, district a major cotton growing district of Gujarat. The various cash crops grown in the state include groundnut, cotton, tobacco (second highest production in the country), isabgul, cumin sugarcane, jawar, bajra, rice, wheat, pulses, tur and gram. Recently the farmers of Gujarat have started producing bananas and mangoes in large scale.  The north-western part is mostly dry due to the desert areas while the southern region is moist due to heavy rainfall during the monsoon season.

Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements.

  1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element though present, did not dominate the scene.
  2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The worship of mother goddess, male deity, probably of Shiva, 2.The worship of animals, naturals, semi-human or fabulous, 3. The worship of trees, 4. The worship of inanimate stones or yoni or linga, 5. Practice of yoga, etc. But there is no evidence of violation of secularism.  Fragments of cotton cloth found at Mohenjo-Daro and other site so that cotton was also grown. Cotton has been found at Mehrgarh at least 2000 years before mature phase of civilisation. This is the oldest evidence of cotton in the world.

The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In the Context, consider the following statements:

  1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one's duties to oneself and to others.
  2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In the context of Hinduism, Dharma refers to one\'s personal obligations, calling and duties. The conception of Rita or cosmic order from which came the Indian ideals of Dharma and Law of Karma is another characteristic of the age of Mantras. Rita meant the cosmic and moral order. The gods were adored as the guardians of both cosmic and moral order. The order of the Universe was supposed to be maintained by Yajnas.

Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

  1. They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency.

  2. The prevent excessive ox idatgion of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy.

  3. They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism.

  4. They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Antioxidants protect the body's cells against oxidants or free radicals. These can damage the cell's surface, alter its DNA or completely kill the cell. Oxidants or free radicals cause oxidative stress if the body does not have time to take care of them. It can lead to diseases. A diet naturally rich in antioxidants helps to protect the body. Fruits and vegetables are rich in antioxidants. So, fruits and vegetables are classed as protective food. Fruits and vegetables are good sources of vitamins and minerals. The recommended daily intake of green vegetables and fruits are 40 g and 85 g respectively. 

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