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Law and Constitution Mock - 4 (UP Police)

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What is the minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?

  1. 18 years

  2. 21 years

  3. 25 years

  4. 30 years


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The minimum age for getting elected to the lower house is 25 years.

A subject is said to be in the concurrent list when a law can be passed on it by

  1. the Central Government

  2. both the Central and State Government

  3. the State Government

  4. the President and the Prime Minister together


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: both the Central and the State Governments

When a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, but not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days of its receipt,

  1. it cannot become an Act

  2. it is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses

  3. it is again referred to the Rajya Sabha

  4. it is reconsidered by the Lok Sabha itself


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A money bill or supply bill is a bill that solely concerns taxation or government spending, as opposed to changes in public law. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha. A money bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days or the bill is deemed to have been passed by both houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha. 

The first General Elections of the Lok Sabha were held in the year

  1. 1947

  2. 1951

  3. 1952

  4. 1957


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The rest of the India voted only in February–March 1952 for the Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elections. Polling was held between 25 October, 1951 and 27 March, 1952. The very first votes of the election were cast in the tehsil (district) of Chini in Himachal Pradesh.

Which of the following is the hindrance in the way of good citizenship?

  1. To be more educated

  2. To be a wealthy person

  3. To be communal-minded

  4. To be religious-minded


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: To be communal-minded

The constitution of which country inspired us to establish a 'Republic'?

  1. France

  2. Italy

  3. South Africa

  4. Britain


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: France

A legislature of a country

  1. makes the laws

  2. interprets the laws

  3. protects the laws

  4. enforces the laws


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A legislature is a deliberative assembly with the authority to make laws for a political entity such as a country or city.

Which of the following emergencies has never been proclaimed in India?

  1. Constitutional breakdown in the States leading to President's rule

  2. Financial emergency due to economic instability

  3. National emergency due to external factors

  4. National emergency due to internal disturbances


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

If the President is satisfied that there is an economic situation in which the financial stability or credit of India is threatened, he or she can declare financial emergency. Such an emergency must be approved by the Parliament within two months. It has never been declared. Such a situation had arisen, but was avoided by putting the gold assets of India as collateral for foreign credit.  It remains enforced till the President revokes it. In case of a financial emergency, the President can reduce the salaries of all government officials, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. All money bills passed by the State legislatures are submitted to the President for his approval. He can direct the state to observe certain principles (economy measures) relating to financial matters. The phrase Emergency period, used loosely when referring to the political history of India, often refers to the third and the most controversial of the three occasions.

In India, all executive powers of the Union ultimately lie with the

  1. President

  2. Parliament

  3. Cabinet

  4. Prime Minister


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Indian Constitution, vests in the President of India, all the executive powers of the Central Government. The President appoints the Prime Minister, the person most likely to command the support of the majority in the Lok Sabha (usually the leader of the majority party or coalition). The President then appoints the other members of the Council of Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Who among the following prorogues the State Legislature?

  1. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

  2. Governor

  3. Chief Minister

  4. The President


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature as the President is in the Parliament. Article 168(1) of the Indian Constitution provides that for every State, there shall be a Legislature which shall consist of the Governor and two Houses or one House, as the case may be. He plays multifaceted role in the administration of the State even though he is not a member of the State Legislature. He is the executive head of the State. All executive actions in the State are taken in his name. He is empowered to exercise his executive power either directly or through the officers, who are subordinate to him.

On which of the following dates was the Constitution of India enacted and adopted in the Constituent Assembly?

  1. 26th November, 1949

  2. 29th August, 1947

  3. 26th January, 1950

  4. 17th October, 1949


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Constitution of India was enacted, signed and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949.  On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of India came into force.

Which of the following systems was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919?

  1. Federal system

  2. Provincial autonomy

  3. Dyarchy

  4. System of separate electorates


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Act provided a dual form of government (a dyarchy) for the major provinces. In each such province, control of some areas of government, the transferred list, were given to a government of ministers answerable to the Provincial Council. The 'transferred list' included agriculture, supervision of local government, health and education. The Provincial Councils were enlarged.

The implication of secularism in the Indian Constitution is

  1. non-discrimination on the basis of one's creed

  2. opposition to all religions

  3. legal prohibition of communal parties

  4. banning of religious conversion by law


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares that India is a secular country. The term secularism refers to the governmental practice of indifference towards religion. Secular politics attempt to prevent religious philosophies or bodies from influencing governmental policies. The philosophy that the Indian constitution upholds is a kind of secular humanism made relevant through a historical development of the ideology within the context of religious pluralism in India.

The President of India may resign from his office by writing to the

  1. Vice President of India

  2. Prime Minister of India

  3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  4. Chief Justice of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The President of India may resign from his office by writing to the Vice President of India. 

The retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court is

  1. 58 years

  2. 60 years

  3. 62 years

  4. 65 years


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court is 65 years. 

A state of emergency can be declared in India by

  1. the Parliament

  2. the Prime Minister

  3. the Cabinet

  4. the President


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

1. National Emergency (Article 352) On the grounds of security threats to India by war, external aggression or armed rebellion, the President can proclaim this emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet. 2. State Emergency (Article 356) Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery in State. The President's rule can be imposed when the President is satisfied, on the basis of either a report of the State Governor or otherwise, that the governance of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. 3. Financial Emergency (Article 360) The President can proclaim Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability or the credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.

Who can participate in the election of the Vice President?

  1. The members of the Lok Sabha

  2. The members of both the Houses of the Parliament

  3. The members of the Rajya Sabha

  4. The elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both the Houses of the Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The voting in such election is done by a secret ballot.

Which among the following is/are enforceable in a court of law?

  1. Fundamental Rights

  2. Preamble

  3. Duties

  4. Directive Principles


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Fundamental Rights are enforceable in a court of law.

Which of the following is not a political right of a citizen?

  1. Right to petition

  2. Right to vote

  3. Right to property

  4. Right to self-defence


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Right to property is not a political right of a citizen. 

A democratic government does not try to secure

  1. social equality

  2. political equality

  3. economic equality

  4. equality of work


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A democratic government does not try to secure equality of work.

Which of the following constitute(s) the oldest known canonical works of Buddhism?

  1. Tripiṭaka (three pitakas)

  2. Theravada texts

  3. Mahayana sutras

  4. Ashtamangla


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Tripitaka (called Tipitaka in Pali) is the earliest collection of Buddhist writings.

The set up of environmental laboratories is the responsibility of

  1. Centre

  2. State

  3. Zila Parishad

  4. Gram Sabha


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Centre

Protection Officers are nominated by the state government under which of the following sections of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act?

  1. Section 8

  2. Section 9

  3. Section 10

  4. Section 11


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 8: Appointment of Protection Officers The State Government shall, by notification, appoint such number of Protection Officers in each district as it may consider necessary and shall also notify the area or areas within which a Protection Officer shall exercise the powers and perform the duties conferred on him by or under this Act.

Which of the following is not included in the list of known cyber crimes?

  1. Cyber obscenity

  2. Hacking

  3. E-chat

  4. Nigeria 419


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

E-chat is not included in the list of known cyber crimes. E-chat is just an online platform for messaging, which does not fall under cyber crime.

Which of the following best describes "state sovereignty"?

  1. The right of a country to appoint a King or Queen

  2. The right of a country to make its own laws

  3. Universal suffrage

  4. The right of a country to negotiate and enter into treaties with other countries


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

State sovereignty is the ability of the state to be independent and have autonomy and control over itself and its decisions. The word sovereign means autonomous or independent.

Under sections of the Motor Vehicle Act, a person found driving under the influence of alcohol can be fined up to

  1. Rs. 5000

  2. Rs. 2000

  3. Rs. 1000

  4. Rs. 500


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under sections of the Motor Vehicle Act, a person found driving under the influence of alcohol can be fined up to Rs. 2000.

Scheduled Tribe of which Union Territory is allowed to hunt?

  1. Lakshadweep

  2. Goa

  3. Andaman and Nicobar

  4. Chandigarh


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Andaman and Nicobar

Punishment for forgery is defined u/s ___ of IPC.

  1. 463

  2. 464

  3. 465

  4. 466

  5. /


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Punishment for forgery is defined u/s 465 of IPC.

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 extends to

  1. only Jammu and Kashmir

  2. only Uttar Pradesh

  3. only Delhi

  4. the whole of India


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 extends to the whole of India. It shall come into force on such date as the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint and different dates may be appointed for different provisions of this Act and for different areas.

According to Section 433 of CrPC, 1973, does appropriate government have the power to commute a sentence?

  1. Yes, when there is sentence of death

  2. Yes, when there is sentence of imprisonment for life

  3. Yes, when there is a sentence of rigorous imprisonment

  4. All of the above

  5. /


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In all of the above circumstances, appropriate government has the power to commute a sentence.

For attracting provisions under Section 304B of IPC, a woman should have died within _____ years of marriage.

  1. 2 years

  2. 5 years

  3. 7 years

  4. 10 years

  5. /


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

For attracting provisions under Section 304B of IPC, a woman should have died within 7 years of marriage.

A person giving injury to the general public or obstructing use of public right is called

  1. public wrong doing

  2. public nuisance

  3. public breach of trust

  4. public obstruction

  5. /


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Giving injury to general public is called public nuisance.

Where shall the application for Section 125 of CrPC be filed in the district?

  1. Where a ma'am resides

  2. Where the wife resides

  3. Where husband last resided with his wife

  4. All of the above

  5. /


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Proceedings under Section 125 may be taken against any person in any district (a) where he is (b) where he or his wife resides (c) where he last resided with his wife, or as the case may be, with the mother of the illegitimate child

Failure to keep election accounts shall be punished with a fine of

  1. 100 rupees

  2. 500 rupees

  3. 1000 rupees

  4. 5000 rupees

  5. /


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Failure to keep election accounts - Whoever being required by any law for the time being in force or any rule having the force of law to keep accounts of expenses incurred at or in connection with an election fails to keep such accounts shall be punished with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees.

Abetting war against the Government of India shall be punishable with

  1. imprisonment for 10 years

  2. imprisonment for 14 years

  3. imprisonment for 20 years

  4. life imprisonment

  5. /


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Abetting war against the Government of India shall be punishable with life imprisonment.

Is there any difference between false evidence and fabricating false evidence?

  1. Yes, these both are different concepts.

  2. No, both give the same meaning.

  3. No, there are no such words in Evidence Act.

  4. Yes, but both are defined in the same Section of IPC.

  5. /


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to Sections 191 and 192 of Evidence Act, these are different concepts.

Who among the following is not a public servant according to Section 21 of IPC?

  1. Officer in court of justice

  2. Member of panchayat

  3. Every judge

  4. All of the above

  5. //


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 21 in the Indian Penal Code: “Public servant” — The words “public servant” denote a person falling under any of the above category.

Which of following is/are the part of movable property according to Section 22 of IPC?

  1. Corporeal property

  2. Crops

  3. Buildings

  4. Parks

  5. /


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 22 of the Indian Penal Code: “Movable property” — The words “movable property” are intended to include corporeal property of every description, except land and things attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything which is attached to the earth.

What does omission mean according to Section 31 of IPC?

  1. Omit something

  2. Different omission as a single omission

  3. Series of omission as a single omission

  4. Series of omission as different omission.

  5. /


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Omission denotes a series of omission as a single omission.

A, a police officer, being ordered by the court to arrest Y, after enquiry believes Z to be Y and arrests him. Has A committed an offence?

  1. Yes, because this is a wrongful confinement.

  2. No, because this is mistake of fact in good faith.

  3. Yes, because A was under the authority to act.

  4. No, because it was a justified mistake..

  5. /


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 76 of IPC states that mistake of fact or person bound by law to do some act does not mean that the person has done an offence.

The examination of a witness by a party who calls him shall be called as

  1. cross examination

  2. re-examination

  3. examination in chief

  4. witness examination

  5. /


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 137 of Evidence Act states that it shall be called as examination in chief.

In which of the following is there no estoppel u/s 115 of Evidence Act?

  1. State government

  2. Central government

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Either 1 or 2

  5. /


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

There is no estoppel against the state government or central government.

Professional communication made to _____ cannot be read in evidence in criminal proceeding.

  1. attorney

  2. barrister

  3. advocate

  4. All of the above

  5. /


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Any communication made in course of employment can't be read in evidence.

After dissolution of valid marriage, in how many days is a child said to be legitimate child?

  1. 280 days

  2. 290 days

  3. 300 days

  4. 310 days

  5. /


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

After a valid marriage is dissolved, a child born within 280 days is held to be legitimate child.

If there is loss of primary evidence, then it is proved by

  1. duplicate evidence

  2. secondary evidence

  3. depleted evidence

  4. partial evidence

  5. /


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

If there is loss of primary evidence, then it is proved by secondary evidence.

Is the previous good character of an accused charged with an offence relevant in criminal proceeding?

  1. Yes, it helps to punish or acquit the accused.

  2. No, offence shall always be an offence.

  3. No, such things are not relevant in criminal proceeding.

  4. No, this allows the accused to commit another offence.

  5. /


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 53 of Evidence Act states that the previous good character is relevant in criminal proceeding.

Which of following is a direct evidence?

  1. Evidence heard from some other person

  2. A person who personally has no knowledge

  3. A person who is having an opinion

  4. A person who has seen it

  5. /


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A person who has directly seen or heard is a direct evidence.

The first metal that was used by man was

  1. iron

  2. gold

  3. silver

  4. copper


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The first metal used by man was copper. The use of copper in antiquity is of more significance than gold as the first tools, implements and weapons were made from copper.

Cyber offence related to a business entity is called

  1. cyberstalking

  2. corporate cyberstalking

  3. spamming

  4. hacking


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Corporate cyberstalking is when a company harasses an individual online or an individual or group of individuals harass an organisation.

When did ‘Simon Commision’ arrive India?

  1. 1st November, 1927

  2. 13th April, 1919

  3. 3rd February, 1928

  4. 31st August, 1929


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3rd February, 1928

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