0

Human Diseases 2

Description: This testwill help the students to revise the physiology completely.
Number of Questions: 15
Created by:
Tags: Digestion Related Disorders Auto Immune Diseases Skin Receptors Sensory Reception and Processing Respiratory Disorders Disorders of Respiratory System
Attempted 0/15 Correct 0 Score 0

Which sexual pathogen is most likely to become resistant to antibiotics through plasmid-mediated mechanisms?  

  1. Treponema pallidum

  2. Neiserria gonorrhoeae

  3. Chlamydia trachomatis

  4. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

  5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Gonococci develop resistance to antibiotics through plasma-mediated mechanisms, most leading to resistance to penicillin and tetracycline.

A couple got blessed wih a child, but unfortunately the baby was suffering from sensorineural deafness. Which of the following causes sensorineural deafness in newborn infants?

  1. Prematurity

  2. Autosomal dominant inheritance

  3. Autosomal recessive inheritance

  4. Congenital rubella

  5. Hyperbilirubinaemia


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Inherited causes now account for 50% of all cases of severe sensorineural hearing impairment; 80% are due to single-gene autosomal recessive disorders and 15% to autosomal dominant disorders.

Type IV hypersensitivity is a cell-mediated immune reaction. Which of the following is true regarding the type IV hypersensitivity?

  1. Specific antibodies are directed against cellular targets.

  2. Complement is involved.

  3. Mast cells play a central role in the effector component.

  4. Th1 cells play a central role in the effector component.

  5. Histology is typically granulomatous.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

T cells are involved; the principle effector cells are Th1, secreting interferon-gamma and TNF, resulting in activation of macrophages. Th17 cells may also play a role.

Anita is in her third trimester of her second pregnancy. Adequate renal function and normal amniotic fluid production is NOT required in the developing fetus for which of the following functions?

  1. Providing space for growth and movement

  2. Protection against infection

  3. Maintenance of temperature

  4. Development of the respiratory system

  5. Excretion of waste products


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Urine production is the major contributor to amniotic fluid but in the fetus the placenta is the organ responsible for the removal of waste products.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the removal of cells by apoptosis?  

  1. Auto-antigens are frequently methylated and this results directly in autoimmune sensitisation.

  2. C5 plays a central role in cellular clearance.

  3. Apoptosis can also be mediated by T cells using FAS:FAS ligand interactions.

  4. Nuclear material is expanded beneath a blebbed membrane.

  5. Macrophages secrete the pro-inflammatory cytokines IL-10 and TGFβ in response to cellular ingestion.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

FAS ligand (CD178) is expressed on activated T cells; the interaction with FAS, a protein on many cell types triggers enzymes to degrade the target cell DNA.

Which of the following concerning diseases involving immunological mechanisms of type II hypersensitivity is CORRECT?    

  1. Type II hypersensitivity involves circulating or tissue-bound immune complexes.

  2. Inflammation occurs within minutes.

  3. May alter the cell metabolism through receptor dysfunction.

  4. Are responsible for lupus nephritis.

  5. Are largely Th1 cytokine dependent.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Grave's disease results from the binding of specific antibodies to cell-bound antigen, TSH receptor. Activates this receptor and stimulates the thyroid cell to produce thyroid hormone as a result.

Which of the following is not included in the serological findings in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

  1. Raised serum IgG levels

  2. Antibodies to double-stranded DNA

  3. Decreased C3 and C4 levels

  4. A positive lupus anticoagulant

  5. Antibodies to cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP antibodies)


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Anti-CCP antibodies are found in >96% of patients with RA and not in other inflammatory conditions, making this assay specific for RA and therefore useful in clinical practice.

Which of these statements is true regarding the bullous skin diseases?

  1. In the bullous skin eruptions the edge of established bullae should be biopsied for direct immunofluorescent examination.

  2. Pemphigus vulgaris is the least serious of the bullous skin disorders.

  3. Pemphigus vulgaris is a disease of younger individuals, usually 20 - 40 years.

  4. Pemphigus vulgaris blisters occur within the dermis.

  5. The main antigenic target the autoantibodies in pemphigoid is the adhesion molecule, desmoglein 3.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The edge of new bullae shows the immunopathogenic autoantibody in situ.

Which of the following characteristically is NOT expressed by the main population of intraepithelial lymphocytes?

  1. CD8

  2. CD 103

  3. γδ form T-cell receptor [TCR]

  4. αβ form of the T-cell receptor [TCR]

  5. CD 19 


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Intraepithelial lymphocytes are T cells of various types, not B cells. CD19 is a B cell marker.

The skin is the largest organ of the body, with a total area of about 20 square feet. Which of the following statements relating to infections in the skin is true?

  1. Skin granulomas are rare in Mycobacterium leprae infections.

  2. Human papilloma virus (HPV) is associated with a reactive, non-infective skin rash.

  3. The measles rash is infective.

  4. Recurrent herpes labialis is caused by reactivation of persistent herpes simplex infection often provoked by exposure to UV light.

  5. Atopic individuals have an increased tendency to varicella zoster virus (VZV).


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Reactivation of the persistent HSV infection is probably due to suppression of the skin immune system.

Which of the following statements about bronchial eosinophilia due to Aspergillus fumigatus is CORRECT?

  1. Patients usually have chronic asthma.

  2. The fungus is nearly always seen on chest X-ray.

  3. Serum IgE levels are usually low or normal.

  4. Precipitating antibodies to Aspergillus fumigatus are rarely found.

  5. Eosinophils are never found in mucus plugs.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Yes, it is the correct statement.

Recurrent or severe bacterial pneumonia does NOT usually complicate, which of the following conditions?

  1. Complement C3 deficiency

  2. Primary antibody deficiencies

  3. Secondary immunodeficiency

  4. Splenectomy

  5. Immunosuppression following renal transplantation


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

The anti T cell immunosuppression used to prevent graft rejection increases the risk of fungal and viral infections. Bacterial pneumonia is a particular risk when the patient is neutropenic after bone marrow transplantation.

Th cells are a type of T cell that play an important role in the immune system. Which of the following statements about Th responses is FALSE?  

  1. Th2 cells produce cytokines that favour the production of IgE.

  2. Th1 cells can be found in atopic eczema lesions.

  3. Th2 cells characteristically express the foxp3 gene product.

  4. Th2 cells produce IL-4.

  5. Th1 cells are associated with the transcription factor T-bet.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Foxp3 is a protein involved in immune system responses. It is associated with regulatory T cells.

Which of the following statements is NOT thought to be involved in asthma?  

  1. Activation of Th1cells.

  2. Epithelial cell activation occurs.

  3. Upregulation of VCAM-1 results in infiltration of eosinophils.

  4. Adrenaline is always used to reverse bronchoconstriction in mild asthmatics.

  5. Blocking activation of mast cells with a monoclonal antibody to IgE can give clinical benefit.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Adrenaline is only used in status asthmaticus and never in mild asthma.

The presence of which of the following cell types defines a granuloma on routine histology?

  1. T lymphocytes

  2. Erythrocytes

  3. Basophils

  4. Epithelioid cells

  5. Giant cells


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Multinucleate cells formed by fusion of macrophages define a granuloma.

- Hide questions