Political 2006
Description: UPSC 2006 Political Science Previous Papers Test and Sample Model Question Papers for UPSC Civil Services Prelims and Main Examination | |
Number of Questions: 120 | |
Created by: Tanuja Atwal | |
Tags: UPSC UPSC 2006 History Main Examination UPSC Prelims UPSC History Prelims UPSC Sample Question UPSC Model Question Civil Services Exams Questions UPSC UPSC General Studies IAS Preparation UPSC 2005 History UPSC 2006 Sociology UPSC 2006 Political |
Which of the following approaches regards State primarily as an organization for the creation and enforcement of law and refuses to treat State as a social organization?
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Which of the following are the main arguments of trans-empiricists against empirical study?1. Human behaviour cannot be studied with objectivity.
- Political phenomenon is not amenable to experimental enquiry.
- A purely descriptive approach has no advantage.
- Political science cannot refuse to show concern with questions of right and wrong. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which one of the following indicates a relationship between inputs and outputs of a democratic political system?
Who among the following developed the view that political process is essentially a decision-making process, and all factors relevant to the making of decisions can be subjected to systematic empirical examination?
Consider the following statements- For Gramsci, civil society is the arena of
- consent over coercion
- hegemony over domination
- leadership over power
- reconciliation over struggle Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Consider the following statements:
- Positivism emphasized precision, constructive power and relativism.
- Positivists understood meaningful analysis as possible only through tautologies and empirical statements.
- The empiricism believed that observation and experience as source of knowledge had no significance for positivism. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Thinker) | List-II (Concept) |
A. Graham Wallas | 1. Politics as agitation/resolution of conflict |
B. Arthur Bentley | 2. Scientific approach |
C. C. Merriam | 3. Concept of group |
D. Banfield | 4. Analysis of man |
Who among the following thinkers formulated the concept of positive and negative liberty?
The first modern philosopher to articulate a detailed contract theory is
Consider the following statements.
- Jeremy Bentham preserved the individualist notion of moral autonomy.
- Jeremy Bentham supported the idea that division of power secured and protected constitutional liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Who among the following propounded the Functional Theory of Rights?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Scholar) | |
List-II (Idea) | |
A. John Seeley | |
1. Political system as persistent pattern of human relationship that involves, to a significant extent, power, rule or authority | |
B. G. Almond | |
2. Political system as legitimate physical coercion | |
C. R.A. Dahl | |
3. Rejection of claims of traditional metaphysics to a cognitive status | |
D. Karl Popper | |
4. History without political science has no fruit, political science without history has no root | |
Equalitarians find equality before law as inadequate to uphold the value of equality. Which of the following is assigned as the reason by them?
On what does the Elitist Theory of Democracy emphasize the maximum?
Consider the following.
- Orientation to problem solving
- Orientation to collective action
- Orientation to the political system
- Orientation to other people Who among the following has listed the above as the salient features of political culture?
Which one among the following carriers out demarcation of electoral constituencies in each State and allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to different States?
Which one of the following theories of democracy was propounded by Joseph Schumpeter?
Who among the following categorized the development of liberal democracy into four models, Protective, Development, Equilibrium and Participatory?
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
What does deliberative democracy lay emphasis on?
Consider the following statements. The republic view of democracy argues
- full and active participation of citizens
- accommodation and compromise between competing interests
- people are the bearers of democracy that cannot be delegated
- people cannot have others to represent them Which of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Theory) | |
List-II (Propounder) | |
A. Libertarian theory of Justice | |
1. John Rawls | |
B. Entitlement theory of Justice | |
2. Robert Nozick | |
C. Contraction theory of Justice | |
3. F.A. Hayek | |
D. Feminist theory of Justice | |
4. Janet Radcliffe Richards | |
Assertion (A) : Fascism could not conceive of any sphere of human activity remaining immune from intervention by the State. Reason (R) : Fascism strove to unify the world by appealing to shared traditions humankind.
Assertion (A): Fabianism is primarily a British middle class ideology. Reason (R): Fabians are opposed to evolutionary method.
In which of the following studies does Karl Marx assert the autonomy of the political sphere?
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Assertion (A): According to Lenin, imperialism is the highest stage of capitalist development. Reason (R): Industrialization and modern technology did not constitute a model for the development of the lesser developed countries.
Who among the following was the chief exponent of the legal theory of sovereignty?
Which one of the following is a characteristic of fascism?
The idea of social citizenship calls for
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?
Some socialists hold that employee unions should be 'encroaching control', seek to wrest the direction of industries from the capitalists. Which one of the following schools upholds this viewpoint?
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
According to Karl Marx, four different types of societies emerged during the course of human history. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of emergence of those societies?
Assertion (A): Lenin wanted the Indian Communists to support the bourgeois democratic movement in their country. Reason (R): Lenin wanted the Indian Communists to support the bourgeois democratic movement in their country.
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
In Weber's view, which one of the following further stimulated the growth of bureaucratisation?
Who among the following used the phrase 'Asiatic Mode of Production' to describe the non-Europe societies?
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incorporates salaries and allowance of members of Parliament, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha as one of the items?
In the 'Stages approach to development', who among the following proposed the savage and the pastoral stages?
Who among the following is associated with the systems theory in international relations?
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Classical liberalism | |
John Locke | |
2. Equalitarian liberalism | |
John Mayanard Keynes | |
3. Neoliberalism | |
T.H. Green | |
4. New liberalism | |
Bernard Bosanquet | |
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Confronted try the prospects of an organic conception of nation, which one of the following has been advocated by liberals?
Which one of the following has not been advanced by Gabriel Almond as a category of interest groups?
Who among the following is an exponent of conflict and peace studies?
Who among the following have advanced and developed neo-realist arguments?
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Consider the following statements about Game Theory.
- It is a branch of mathematics concerned with predicting bargaining outcomes.
- It was first used extensively in international relations in 1950 and 1960s by scholars trying to understand US-Soviet nuclear war contingencies.
- It is a general theory of international relations. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Nature of State) | |
List-II (Ideology) | |
A. State is an evil necessitated by the selfishness and rapacity of man | |
1. Socialism | |
B. State is the embodiment of the best in every man | |
2. Fascism | |
C. State is a cooperative Commonwealth aiming at positive good | |
3. Gandhism | |
D. State is absolute, permanent, omnipotent and super-naturally sanctioned institution | |
4. Individualism | |
5. Idealism | |
Considered the following statements - Organized working class movement has remained deeply suspicious of the modes of representation prevalent in capitalist societies, because it feels:
- representatives acting as trustees uphold hegemonic concerns.
- representatives acting as delegates become spokes-persons of dominant interests.
- parties carry out their mandates without making a serious dent in prevailing social relations.
- even if a representative resembles members of the working classes, soon he/she comes to be co-opted within structures of power. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Scholar) | |
List-II (Concept/Theory) | |
A. Michael Crozier | |
1. Iron law of oligarchy | |
B. Robert Michels | |
2. The bureaucratic phenomenon | |
C. Fred Riggs | |
3. Prismatic bureaucracy | |
D. Bruno Rizzi | |
4. The bureaucratization | |
Consider the following statements about the game called prisoner's dilemma. 1. It is a situation in which rational players will choose moves that produce an outcome in which all players are worse off.
- This game has been used to gain insight into arms race.
- This game represents two male teenagers spreading towards a head-on collision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Considered the following statements about the organizational process model of decision making- 1. Officials choose the action whose consequences best help to meet the State's established goals.
- Decisions result from routine administrative procedure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
What does the principle of subsidiarity in the context of the European Union stand for ?
How was the Bill of Rights incorporated in the Constitution of the United States of America?
In South Africa, how is the Presidential Cabinet Constituted?
What is the doctrine of separation of powers meant to ensure?
In the United Kingdom, with which of the following is the Lord Chancellor associated?1. Members of the House of Commons2. Members of the House of Lords3. The Head of Judiciary4. Ministers in the Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
In the Federal Republic of Germany, the authority to declare a political party unconstitutional lies with which one of the following?
Consider the following statements in respect of the constitutional features of Germany.1. Specified human rights can be changed only by a constitutional amendment.2. Any Proposal to change the provisions concerning the federal structure or powers of the states (Lander) is inadmissible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Model of Decision Theory) | |
List-II (Feature) | |
A. Rational model | |
1. Decision makers rely on standard operating procedures | |
B. Organizational process model | |
2. Foreign policy decisions result from the bargaining process among various government agencies | |
C. Bureaucratic politics model | |
3. Decision makers make choice after calculating costs and benefits of each possible course of action | |
D. Individual decision making model | |
4. Decision makers suffer from misperceptions or selective perceptions | |
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution of the United Kingdom -
- All Money Bills (so certified by the Speaker of the House of Commons), if not passed in the House of Lords without amendment may become law without the concurrence of the House of Lords within one month of introduction in the House of Lords.
- The UK Parliament approves all laws for Northern Ireland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following events?
- Indian Navy Revolt
- Poona Act
- Salt Satyagraha
- Morley-Minto Reforms Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
For which one of the following in the United Kingdom, additional members are elected on the basis of proportional representation?
Which of the following was/were suggested by the National Commission to review the working of the Constitution (2002)?1. Governors should be appointed by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Union Home Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chief Minister of the concerned State.
- Retired or defeated politicians should not be appointed Governors.
- Persons with fair knowledge of Constitution and Indian polity should be preferred as Governors. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following Acts introduced diarchy in the provinces?
Which one of the following international organisations was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 1977?
Consider the following statements.
- In the United States of America an amendment of the Constitution may be made if the proposal is passed by two-thirds majority of each House of Congress and is thereafter accepted by a vote of the legislatures of two-thirds of the States.
- In the American Presidential elections, if no Presidential candidate secures the minimum 270 college votes needed for outright victory, the House of Representatives chooses a President from among the first three finishers in the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- Zonal Councils have been established under an Article of the Constitution of India .
- There is a provision under an Article of the Constitution of India that an inter-State Council can be established by the President.
- The Union Home Minister has been nominated to be the Common Chairman of all the Zonal Councils. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- Parliament may be law provided that neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the water of or in, any inter-state river or river valley.
- River Boards Act, 1956 provides for reference of an inter-State river dispute for arbitration by a Water Dispute Tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
In which one of the following cases, the attempt to confer a primacy upon the Directive Principles of State Policy as against the Fundamental Rights was foiled by the majority of the Supreme Court?
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I | |
List-II | |
A. Bicameral system | |
1. Government of India Act, 1935 | |
B. Legislative devolution | |
2. Indian Councils Act, 1861 | |
C. Separate electorate | |
3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms | |
D. Provincial autonomy | |
4. Indian Councils Act, 1892 | |
5. Minto-Morley Reforms | |
Which one of the following is not stated as a Directive Principles of state policy in the Constitution of India?
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles?
Assertion (A) : The structural adjustment programme encourages State spending and budget deficit to spur growth.Reason (R) : The International Monetary Fund wants to ensure that money lent to a country is not spent for politically popular purposes but it is spent for purposes without economically profitable motives.
The 'Niemeyer method' for distribution of seats in the Bundestang is concerned with proportion of vote casts in favour of
Which of the following were emphasized as foci for the new thrust in elementary education by the National Policy on Education, 1986?
- Universal access and enrolment
- Universal retention of children upto 14 years of age
- A substantial improvement in the quality of education to enables all children to achieve essential levels of learning
- To include education in the concurrent list. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A) : During any period when the Vice-President of India acts as President of India or discharges the functions of the President, he continues to perform the duties of the office of the Chairman of the Council of States. Reason (R) : The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Commission/Committee) | |
List-II (Subject) | |
A. Rajamannar Committee | |
1. Backward classes | |
B. Sarkaria Commission | |
2. Linguistic division of Status | |
C. Kaka Kalelkar Commission | |
3. Administrative reforms | |
4. Centre State relations | |
Which one of the following statements about the impeachment of the President of India is not correct?
Consider the following statement about SAARC.
- Air transport is one of the subjects included in the agreed areas of cooperation made under the Integrated Programme of Action (IPA).
- The Charter establishing SAARC was adopted at the first Summit meeting in Dhaka.
- The foreign ministers of the seven member countries met for the first time in Colombo in 1983 and adopted the Declaration on SAARC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following?
Consider the following statements in respect of an Ordinance promulgated by the President of India during the recess of Parliament.1. Such an Ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the President.
- Such an Ordinance shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or before that period if disapproved by both Houses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
- For the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, a resolution must be passed in both the Houses of the Parliament.
- A resolution passed as stated above can be extended beyond on year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A change in which of the following does not require ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolutions to that effect passed by those Legislatures before the Bill making provisions for an amendment in the Constitution of India is presented to the President for assent?
Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States?
Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman of the House of States or Speaker of the House of the People or person acting as such, shall not vote at any sitting of either House of Parliament or joint sitting of the Houses in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
- A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of States or House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Assertion (A) : A Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from he Consolidated Fund of a State must have been recommended by the Governor to a House of he Legislature of the State for consideration of the Bill. Reason (R) : Such a Bill cannot be passed by the House without the recommendation of the Governor for consideration of the Bill.
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament by Law may appoint the Governor of a State as the Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory.
- If a Governor of a State is appointed to act as an Administrator of an adjoining Union territory, he shall exercise his functions as such Administrator independently of his Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements:
- If a Bill other than Money Bill is returned by the President of India for reconsideration of the Houses and the Bill is again passed by both Houses of Parliament with or without amendment and again presented to the President, then it is not obligatory upon him to declare his assent to it.
- A Bill for the purpose of formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States can be introduced in either House of Parliament and no recommendation of the President is required for the introduction of such a Bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- The nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of the House of People as a Money Bill, is not open to question in a Court of Law.
- The President of India has the power to question the nature of a Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so by the Speaker of the House of People. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Part XVI A inserted by the Constitution (Forth-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 in the Constitution of India deals with which of the following?
- Administrative tribunals
- Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of enforcement of any tax.
- Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of ceiling on urban property.
- Adjudication or trial by tribunals in respect of industrial and labour disputes. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Consider the following statements.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has no control over the issue of withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
- The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been fixed by an Act enacted by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- Since the sums required to meet expenditure described by the Constitution of India as expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India are not submitted to the vote of Parliament, no House is competent to discuss these estimates.
- Annual Finance Bill provides the legal authority for the withdrawal of sums from the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- A Bill under consideration of the Lok Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued.
- A Bill originating in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha and which is still pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse. Which of the statements given above are correct?
What is the subject of the 91st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2004?
What does the doctrine of 'Pith and Substance' that guides the operation of judicial review in India imply?
Consider the following statements in respect of Lok Adalats.
- Lok Adalats function on the principle of mutual consent and voluntary acceptance of the solution.
- Lok Adalats are like parajudicial institutions.
- Lok Adalats in a State are constituted by the High Court of the State. Which of the statements given above are correct?
In which one of the following cases, did the majority of the Supreme Court propound the view that by adopting the expression 'procedure established by law', Article 21 of our Constitution had embodied the English concept of personal liberty in preference to that of the American 'Due Process'?
Consider the following statements in respect of provisions for removing deadlock between the two houses of Parliament. After a bill has been passed by one house and transmitted to the other houses, the President may notify to the houses his intention to summon them for a joint sitting if:
- The bill is rejected by the other house.
- The house have finally disagreed between amendments to be made in the bill.
- More than three months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other house without the bill being passed by it. Which of the statements given above are correct?
If the Chief Justice of India is to make a request for attendance at the sitting of the Supreme Court as an ad-hoc Judge, of a Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
On which of the following subjects does the Finance Commission of a State Constituted under the Part IX of the Constitution of India make recommendations to the Governor?
- Distribution between the state and the panchayat of the net proceeds of the taxes by the state
- Determination of the taxes which may be assigned to, or appropriated by the panchayats.
- Grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which one of the following Constitution (Amendment) Acts provided the formation of the Metropolitan Planning Committee?
Consider the following statements. 1. Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the validity of a law, relating to delimitation of constituencies of allotments of seats in respect of Panchayats.2. An election to a Panchayat can be called in question only by an election petition which should be presented to such authority and in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Election Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Consider the following statements.
- According to Article 243D, 1/3rd of the seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat.
- Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of seats reserved for the SCs and STs are reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes.
- Not less than 1/3rd of the total number of offices of chairperson in Panchayats at each level are reserved for women. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Consider the following statements: Public Interest Litigation intends to
- redress public injury
- enforce public duty
- protect diffused rights
- reprimand the law-enforcing agency Which of the statements given above are correct?
What were the objectives of the introduction of the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM) by the Government ?
- To promote harmonious relations between the government and its employees
- To secure the greatest measure of cooperation between the government and employees in matters of common concern.
- To increase the efficiency of public services
- To maintain discipline in the civil services. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
What does the term 'Epistolary jurisdiction' of the Court imply?
Which of the following is/are the determinant(s) of pressure group methods?
- The political-institutional structure.
- The nature of the party system
- The political culture Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Jurisdiction) | |
List-II (Type of Cases) | |
A. Appellate Jurisdiction | |
1. Acts as a court of record and also has power to review its own | |
B. Advisory Jurisdiction | |
2. Any question of law or fact of public | |
C. Miscellaneous Powers cases | |
3. Civil cases, criminal constitutional cases | |
Assertion (A) : The two-party system in the United Kingdom, devoid of local pressures, exercises an effective check upon group activities. Reason (R) : In multiparty system, there is hardly any intense pressure group activity at the legislative level.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Constitution Amendment Act) | List-II (Broad Subject) |
A. 52nd Amendment Act | 1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes |
B. 57th Amendment Act | 2. Voting age reduction |
C. 61st Amendment Act | 3. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes of Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh in the Lok Sabha |
D. 65th Amendment Act | 4. Anti-defection law |
5. Municipalities |
Which committee, constituted by the Lok Sabha, comprises members of the Rajya Sabha also?
Who among the following extends the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude from, any Union Territory?
The members of the Constituent Assembly were