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Odisha Judicial Service (Prelims) Exam 2006

Description: Odisha Judicial Service (Prelims) Exam 2006, Previous 2006 paper judicial services
Number of Questions: 120
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The statement “There is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to

  1. Thering

  2. Ehrlich

  3. Duguit

  4. Spencer


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The statement “There is no distinction between public and private law” is attributed to Duguit.

“Jurisprudence is the formal science of those relations of mankind which are generally recognised as having legal consequences and as such is the formal science of positive law.” Jurisprudence has been defined above by

  1. Salmond

  2. Austin

  3. Julius Stone

  4. Holland


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Holland defined Jurisprudence as the formal science of those relations of mankind which are generally recognised as having legal consequences and as such as the formal science of positive law. 

Kelsen’s theory of law is called pure theory of law because Kelsen

  1. purely discussed jurisprudence only

  2. defined law in accordance with morality and purity

  3. separated law from religion, ethics, sociology and history

  4. discussed law purely in terms of justice


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Kelsen’s theory of law is called pure theory of law because Kelsen defined law in accordance with morality and purity. Kelsen's strict separation of law and morals was an integral part of his presentation of the pure theory of law.

“Law as such is found and not made. It is to be found in popular faith, common convictions, customs, traits, habits and traditions which in course of time grow into legal rules.”

This concept of law was propounded by

  1. Savigny

  2. Thibaut

  3. Henry Maine

  4. Salmond


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to Savigny, law is not a consciously created phenomenon but is the gradual distillation of the volksgeist (the spirit of the people). Law is found, not made.

‘Positive Law’ is called positive because it is

  1. followed by everybody

  2. made by a person in authority

  3. made as a result of divine providence

  4. made as a result of collective effort


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Positive law may be characterized as "law actually and specifically enacted or adopted by proper authority for the government of an organized jural society."

Realist theory of Gierke is also known by the name of

  1. purpose theory

  2. bracket theory

  3. organic theory

  4. concession theory


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The realist theory of corporate personality is associated with opposition to the concession theory of incorporation.

“All theories on the subject of punishment have more or less broken down and we are at sea as to first principle of punishment.” It was so observed by

  1. Sir Henry Maine

  2. Blackstone

  3. St. Stephens

  4. Taylor


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

"All theories on the subject of punishment have more or less broken down," observed Sir Henry Maine in 1864 in a speech before the Council of the Governor General of India.

Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social Engineering” which means

  1. greatest happiness to greatest number of people

  2. balancing of competing interests in society

  3. changes in the concepts and functions of the State

  4. that law has its source in the general consciousness


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

According to Roscoe Pound, “Law is social engineering which means a balance between the competing interests in society,” in which applied sciences are used for resolving individual and social problems. 

“Fear is an emotion that plays a paramount part in every human being’s life. If a man knows that violation of laws will render him to suffer, he by instinct fears to commit it.” The above statement supports

  1. retributive theory of punishment

  2. expiatory theory of punishment

  3. reformative theory of punishment

  4. deterrent theory of punishment


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

“Fear is an emotion that plays a paramount part in every human being’s life. If a man knows that violation of laws will render him to suffer, he by instinct fears to commit it.” The above statement supports the retributive theory of punishment. This theory underlines the idea of vengeance and revenge rather than that of social welfare and security.

Consider the following four types of legal doctrines:

  1. Volksgeist
  2. Imperative theory of law
  3. Social engineering
  4. Social solidarity

Identify the correct chronological order of their appearance:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. 2, 1, 4 and 3

  3. 3, 4, 1 and 2

  4. 2, 1, 3 and 4


Correct Option: B
Explanation:
  1. Imperative theory of law - 1832
    1. Volksgeist - 1842
    2. Social solidarity - 1893
    3. Social engineering - 1894

Consider the following statements regarding Natural Law and choose the correct option:

  1. The central notion of natural law is the existence of objective moral principle.
  2. These principles are discovered by reference to legal sources as the Constitution, Codes and so on.
  3. These principles are discovered as the essential nature of man.
  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

  2. 1 and 2 are correct.

  3. 2 and 3 are correct.

  4. 1 and 3 are correct.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1. The central notion of natural law is the existence of objective moral principle as the point of moral principles is to give ethical structure to the pursuit of these basic goods.  Statement 3. These principles are discovered as the essential nature of man. Moral principles enable us to select among competing goods and to define what a human being can permissibly do in pursuit of basic goods.

“To open a school is to close a prison.” The above dictum is of

  1. Salmond

  2. Roscoe Pound

  3. Victor Hugo

  4. Ferry


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Victor Hugo has said, "To open a school is to close a prison." Reformative theory of punishment follows this dictum.

According to Jurists of Analytical School,

  1. custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign

  2. custom never becomes law

  3. custom is a law from the very inception of it

  4. customs are only positive morality even after recognition


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to Jurists of Analytical School, custom becomes law after its recognition by the sovereign.

“Custom, as a source of law, comprises legal rules which have neither been promulgated by legislation nor formulated by professionally trained judges, but arises from popular opinion and is sanctioned by long usage.”

Who amongst the following defined custom as above?

  1. Henry Maine

  2. Comte

  3. Carter

  4. Vino Gradoff


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It is defined by Paul Vino Gradoff.

Which one of the following is not the correct attribute of ownership?

  1. Right to sell the property

  2. Right to mere occupancy

  3. Right to residual use of the property

  4. Right to make a gift of the property


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Right to mere occupancy is not an attribute of ownership.

The statement “Precedents are the past decisions which are used as guide in the moulding of future decisions”, is attributed to

  1. Keeton

  2. Gray

  3. Oppenheim

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The statement “Precedents are the past decisions which are used as guide in the moulding of future decisions”, is attributed to Dias. 

“The pleasure of vengeance calls to mind sermon’s riddle. It was sweet coming out of terrible, it is the honey dropping from the lion’s mouth.” It was so observed by

  1. Aschenffenburg

  2. Bentham

  3. Gillin

  4. Kenny


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bentham referring to the concept of vengeance wrote, "The pleasure of vengeance calls in my mind sermon’s riddle. It is sweet carrying out of terrible, it is the honey dropping from the lion's mouth."

Which of the following could be considered as the advantages of legislation over precedent?

  1. Abrogative power
  2. Foreknowledge
  3. Prospective application
  4. Systematic arrangement

Select the correct answer, using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 1, 2 and 4

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The chief advantages of legisla­tion over precedent are the following:

  1. Legislation is both constitutive and ab­rogative whereas precedent merely possesses constitutive efficacy.
  2. Justice demands that laws should be known before they are applied and enforced by the law courts.
  3. Legislation can make rules in anticipation for cases that have not as yet arisen, whereas precedent must wait for the occurrence of some dispute before the court can create any definite rule of law.
  4. Legislation is superior in form; brief, clear, easily accessible and understandable.

Find out according to whom, there are four classes of absolute duties, viz. duties to self, duty to indeterminate person, duty to the sovereign and duty to one who is not a human being.

  1. Salmond

  2. Pollock

  3. Austin

  4. Duguit


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Austin says that a "relative duty" corresponds to a right. It is a duty to be fulfilled towards a determinate person; while on the other side, there are duties to which there are no corresponding rights. He named such duties as "absolute duties" and he said that there are four kinds of such absolute duties, viz. (i)    Self-regarding duties (ii)   Duties owed to persons indefinitely (iii)  Duties not regarding persons, i.e. the duties owed to God and lower animals (iv)  Duties owed to the sovereign

The nature of the Indian constitution is

  1. federal

  2. unitary

  3. quasi-federal

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Indian constitution provides for dual system of government consisting of a federal or union government and a number of state governments, and distributes powers between both the governments. On the other hand, the Indian constitution also incorporates many features of a unitary state. The Indian constitution is neither purely federal nor purely unitary but is a combination of both. Thus, the nature of Indian constitution is known as quasi-federal.

 

The preamble to the Constitution secures to all citizens

  1. liberty of thought, expression and worship

  2. liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

  3. liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship

  4. liberty of thought, expression, belief and faith


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY, this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

The words ‘Socialist Secular’ have been inserted in the preamble by the

  1. forty-fourth Amendment

  2. forty-second Amendment

  3. forty-first Amendment

  4. fortieth Amendment


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".

The President of India shall hold office

  1. for a term of five years from the date of declaration of the result

  2. for a term of five years from the date the post has fallen vacant

  3. for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office

  4. for a term of five years from the date he is administered oath of his office


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

In which one of the following cases has the court applied the doctrine of “lifting the veil” to determine distinct personality of a corporation?

  1. Salomon V. Salomon & Co. Ltd.

  2. Young V. Hitchens

  3. Johnson V. Kennedy

  4. Brookland V. Metropolitan Corporation


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In the case of Salomon V. Salomon & Co. Ltd, the court applied the doctrine of “lifting the veil” to determine distinct personality of a corporation. 

The directive to the state for formulating its economic policy is provided under

  1. Art. 37

  2. Art. 39 (b)

  3. Art. 39 (c)

  4. Art. 43 A


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

According to article 39 (c) of the Indian Constitution, the economy of the state will be administered in such a manner so that wealth may not yet be concentrated in a few hands and the means of production may not be used against the public interest

Article 323 is related to

  1. Expenses of Public Service Commissions

  2. Reports of Public Service Commissions

  3. Functions of Public Service Commissions

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 323 of the Indian Constitution is related to the Reports of Public Service Commissions.

The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995

  1. provides for consequential seniority in matters of promotion in favour of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes

  2. provides for keeping unfilled vacancies of a year reserved for SC/ST candidates separate from the vacancies of succeeding years, for determining the ceiling of fifty percent

  3. permits the state to show any favour to any class of persons

  4. prohibits discrimination against the access to shops, public restaurants and place of public entertainment


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to this Act, the Government has decided to continue the existing policy of reservation in promotion for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

The Chairman of a State Public Service Commission is appointed by the

  1. Chief Minister

  2. Prime Minister

  3. President

  4. Governor


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 316 of the Indian Constitution states that the Chairman and other members of a Public Service Commission shall be appointed, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission by the President and in the case of a State Commission by the Governor of the State. 

An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated in

  1. Council of States

  2. House of People

  3. Either 1 or 2

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament.

Article 355 of the Constitution of India provides for

  1. distribution of revenue during the emergency promulgated under Article 352 of the Constitution

  2. duty of the Union to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances

  3. the power of Parliament to legislate on matters not enumerated under Union list

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 355 of the Constitution of India provides that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

To seek the services of a legal practitioner of one's own choice is guaranteed as a fundamental right under

  1. Article 21 A

  2. Article 22 (1)

  3. Article 39 A

  4. Article 32 (4)


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 22 (1) of the Indian Constitution provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his own choice. 

Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred

  1. only in the Lok Sabha

  2. only in the Rajya Sabha

  3. only in a joint session of Parliament

  4. by either House of Parliament


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.

The salary of a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India may be reduced

  1. by the President of India

  2. if it is approved by Parliament with special majority

  3. if it is approved by the Chief Justice of India

  4. if a proclamation of financial emergency is in operation


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The salary of a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India may be reduced if a proclamation of financial emergency is in operation.

In Air India V. Nargesh Meerza (1981) 4SCC 335, the termination of air hostesses on the ground of pregnancy within four years was held to be

  1. violative of the Constitution in being unreasonable and arbitrary as it compelled the air hostesses not to have any children

  2. valid as it not only improved the health of the employee but also helped in boosting up of our family planning programme

  3. valid as otherwise the Corporation would have to incur huge expenditure in recruiting additional air hostesses either on a temporary or an ad-hoc basis

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 In Air India V. Nargesh Meerza (1981) 4SCC 335, the termination of air hostesses on the ground of pregnancy within four years was held to be violative of the Constitution in being unreasonable and arbitrary as it compelled the air hostesses not to have any children. It was held stating that it is settled law that article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in state action and that the principle of reasonableness "pervades" article 14 like a brooding omnipresence.

‘The preamble is a part of the Constitution’ was held in

  1. A. K. Gopalan V. State of Madras

  2. Berubari Union case

  3. Keshavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

 It was held in this case of Keshavanand Bharti V. State of Kerala that the Preamble to the Constitution of India is a part of the Constitution.

The fundamental duties are confined to

  1. citizens

  2. juristic persons

  3. all persons

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The fundamental duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.

The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission may be removed from his office

  1. by the Government of India

  2. when a unanimous resolution for the removal is passed by the members of the Commission

  3. by the order of the President of India, where the Supreme Court to whom reference was made after conducting the inquiry, reports that the Chairman should be removed

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an inquiry. If the Supreme Court after the inquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member.

Which of the following statements relating to the basis of International Law is true?

  1. International Law is law because states regard it as law.

  2. International Law is not a true law.

  3. International Law is a mere positive morality.

  4. The true basis of International Law is coercion.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Austin concluded that international law is not true law but ‘international positive morality’ only analogous to the rules binding a club or society.

Which of the following statements reflects the true definition of International Law?

  1. International Law is a body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another.

  2. International Law is the form of rules accepted by civilised states as determining their conduct towards each other and towards each other's subjects.

  3. International Law is the standard of conduct at a given time for the states and other entities thereto.

  4. International Law consists of body of rules which regulate the conduct of the states in their intercourse with each other.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 International Law is a body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another.

The Governor of a state under the Constitution of India is empowered to act without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and acts in his own discretion under

  1. Article 164 (1B)

  2. Article 162

  3. Article 163 (1)

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 163 (2) of the Indian Constitution provides that if any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. 

Which of the following theories is being followed in India in respect of International Law?

  1. Specific adoption theory

  2. Monism

  3. Dualism

  4. Delegation theory


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

India follows the "dualist‟ school of law in respect of implementation of international law at domestic level. 

Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of

  1. 60 years

  2. 62 years

  3. 65 years

  4. 58 years


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years. It is provided under article 124 of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the following sources of International Law does not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice?

  1. General principles of law recognized by civilised States

  2. Decisions or determinations of the organs of International Institutions

  3. Decisions of Judicial or Arbitral Tribunals and juristic works

  4. International customs


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

 Decisions or determinations of the organs of International Institutions as a source of International Law does not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice.

Which of the following statements relating to Monism is true?

  1. International obligations and municipal rules are not the facets of the same phenomenon.

  2. International obligations and municipal rules derive ultimately from one basic norm.

  3. International Law and Municipal Law are two separate systems.

  4. International Law and Municipal Law are unified branches of knowledge, where the former is applied to states, and the latter is applied to individuals.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

International law is that law which is applied in relation of the states and to other subjects of international law. National or state law which is called municipal law is applied within state to the individuals and corporate entities which are the bearers of rights and duties.

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

  1. provides that during emergency, the right to move to the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights except articles 20 and 21 is suspended of the Constitution

  2. provides that the President can authorize the expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State

  3. permits, during emergency (under Article 352), the State Legislative Assemblies to legislate on Railways

  4. allows the administration of Scheduled and Tribal areas


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 provides that during emergency, the right to move to the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights except articles 20 and 21 is suspended of the Constitution.

Which of the following are considered as a subsidiary means of determination of law, under International Law in its settlement of disputes?

  1. General principles of law recognized by civilised States

  2. International customs

  3. International conventions

  4. Teachings of most highly qualified publicists


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Subject to the provisions of Article 59, judicial decisions and the teachings of the most highly qualified publicists of the various nations are subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law.

Which of the following statements relating to the recognition of States is not true?

  1. A State is recognised when it possesses essential elements of statehood.

  2. Recognition of a State means that it has been included as a member of International Community.

  3. Recognition of a State is purely a legal act.

  4. There is no difference between recognition of State and recognition of Government.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

This distinction is based on the view that a government is an instrument in the service of the state, which is an entity composed of a territory, a population and a public authority.

Which of the following statements relating to ‘custom’ as a source of International Law is correct?

  1. A practice, in order to be recognized as ‘custom’, should be universal in practice.

  2. A customary practice is not customary law unless opinio juris is present.

  3. A custom is required to be ancient and immemorial.

  4. A custom should be complete in uniformity.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 38(1)(b) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice accepts "international custom" as a source of law, but only where this custom is 1) evidence of a general practice, (the objective component) (2) accepted as law. (the opinio juris or subjective component)

Which of the following Articles of the UN Charter embodies the principle of self-determination as one of the purposes of United Nations?

  1. Article 1(1)

  2. Article 1(2)

  3. Article 1(4)

  4. Article 1(3)


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 1(2) of the UN Charter provides for developing friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of people, and to take other appropriate measures to strengthen universal peace. 

Which of the following is a consequence of non-recognition of a State?

  1. A recognised state cannot sue in the courts of non-recognising state.

  2. An unrecognised state cannot sue in the courts of non-recognising state.

  3. A recognised state can sue in the courts of any state, whether recognised or not.

  4. An unrecognised state cannot sue in the courts of states recognised by UN.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

An unrecognised state cannot sue in the courts of the non-recognising state.

According to Article 38 of the Statute of International Court of Justice, which is the correct order of the sources of International Law?

  1. Customs, International conventions, General principles of law recognized by civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions

  2. International conventions, General principles of law recognized civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions

  3. International conventions, Customs, General principles of law recognized by civilised States, Judicial decisions and Juristic opinions

  4. International conventions, Judicial decisions and Juristic works, Customs, General principles of law recognized by civilised States


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Article 38 of the International Court of Justice provides that 

  1. The Court, whose function is to decide in accordance with international law such disputes as are submitted to it, shall apply: a. international conventions, whether general or particular, establishing rules expressly recognized by the contesting states; b. international customs, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law; c. the general principles of law recognized by civilized nations; d. subject to the provisions of Article 5 - judicial decisions and the teachings of the most highly qualified publicists of the various nations, as subsidiary means for the determination of rules of law. 

Which of the following statements relating to succession of state is true?

  1. Both the Civil and Criminal Laws of the former state continue until changed by the successor state.

  2. Only Civil Laws continue until changed by the successor state.

  3. Only Criminal Laws continue until changed by the successor state.

  4. Neither Civil nor Criminal Laws will continue.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Both the Civil and Criminal Laws of the former state continue until changed by the successor state.

The principle of ‘continuity of state’ means

  1. The change in the government of a state does not affect its legal personality of the state.

  2. The new government will not succeed to any of the rights and obligations of the predecessor state.

  3. The new government will succeed to certain rights but to no obligations.

  4. The new government will succeed only to the debt obligations of the predecessor state.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The principle of ‘continuity of state’ means the new government will succeed only to the debt obligations of the predecessor state.

According to the provisions of the UN Charter, the primary responsibility for the maintenance of International Peace and Security rests with

  1. General Assembly

  2. Security Council

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Security Council and International Court of Justice


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In order to ensure prompt and effective action by the United Nations, its members confer on the Security Council primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security, and agree that in carrying out its duties under this responsibility, the Security Council acts on their behalf.

Which of the following statements relating to the binding nature of the resolutions of Security Council is ‘true’?

  1. Only the resolutions of Security Council passed under Chapter VII of the Charter are binding, rest are not.

  2. As per Article 25 of the Charter, the resolutions of the Security Council are partly binding and partly recommendatory.

  3. As per Article 25 of the Charter, all the resolutions passed by the Security Council under the UN Charter are binding on the part of the states.

  4. As per Article 25 of the Charter, the resolutions passed by the Security Council are only recommendatory in nature and not binding on the states.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In general, resolutions adopted by the Security Council acting under Chapter VII of the Charter, are considered binding, in accordance with Article 25 of the Charter.

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the Human Rights under the UN Charter?

  1. Human Rights are natural and inalienable.

  2. The existence of Human Rights is independent of positive law.

  3. Human Rights are well-defined under the provisions of the UN Charter.

  4. The UN has the duty to promote universal respect and the observance of Human Rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Whereas human-made law regards law from the position of its origins (i.e. who it was that posited it), positive law regards law from the position of its legitimacy. Thus, the existence of Human Rights is not independent of positive law.

Which of the following Human Rights is not expressly provided for in the UDHR, 1948?

  1. Right to life, liberty and security of persons

  2. Right to own property

  3. Right of people to self-determination

  4. Abolition of slavery and slave-like practices


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Right of people to self-determination as Human Right is not expressly provided for in the UDHR, 1948. 

Which one of the following is an essential component of the law of tort?

  1. Breach of a right

  2. Specific restitution of property

  3. Injunction

  4. Breach of duty


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An essential component of tort is breach of duty. Tort is breach of some duty independent of contract which has caused damage to the plaintiff giving rise to civil cause of action and for which remedy is available.

Which of the following statements relating to the principle of ‘Non-Intervention’ proclaimed under Article 2(7) of the UN Charter is true?

  1. Non-Intervention in domestic matters of a state is an absolute principle.

  2. Even the UN Charter does not authorise the UN to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of a state.

  3. The UN cannot interfere in the domestic matters of a state with its express consent.

  4. The UN is competent to intervene, in domestic matters of a state, where the provisions of Charter and rules of International Law permit it.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 2(7) of the UN Charter provides that nothing contained in the present Charter shall authorise the United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any state or shall require the members to submit such matters to settlement under the present Charter; but this principle shall not prejudice the application of enforcement measures under Chapter Vll. 

Which of the following Human Rights is considered as the third generation of Human Rights?

  1. Right to social security

  2. Right to development

  3. Right to own property

  4. Right to work


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Right to economic and social development is considered as the third generation of Human Rights. 

A master M employed a car mechanic S to repair cars. S repaired the plaintiff’s car and drove it for a short distance to check whether the repair was proper. In the process, S caused an accident and injured the plaintiff P. M is

  1. not liable as S was not authorised to drive the car

  2. liable for negligence of S

  3. not liable as S’s act was outside his course of employment

  4. liable as S’s act is necessarily incidental to the nature of his duties


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

M can be held vicariously liable for negligence committed by a person S, as if the owner was a principal and the S was his or her agent, if the S is using the car primarily for the purpose of performing a task for M.

In law of tort, duty is

  1. primarily fixed by the law

  2. ordinarily fixed by the law

  3. naturally fixed by the law

  4. definitely fixed by the law


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily affixed by law. The duty is towards persons in general and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages.

Which of the following rights is not included in the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?

  1. To have access to agriculture credit and loans

  2. To enjoy adequate living conditions

  3. To have access to adequate health care facilities

  4. To participate in promoting international peace and co-operation


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 14 of the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) provides protections for rural women and their special problems, ensuring the right of women to participate in development programs, "to have access to adequate health care facilities," "to participate in all community activities," "to have access to agricultural credit," and "to enjoy adequate living conditions."

Which one of the following does not constitute course of employment?

  1. The servant’s act is expressly authorised by the master.

  2. The servant is doing something for the benefit of the master.

  3. The servant’s act is implicitly authorised by the master.

  4. The servant is doing the authorised act in an unauthorised manner.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Option 2 does not constitute course of employment. The liability arises even though the servant acted against the express instruction and for no benefit of his master.

 

Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to the neighbour principle?

  1. One must take reasonable care towards persons who are near him.

  2. There is no general duty to act positively for the benefit of others.

  3. Consumer items are beyond the purview of the neighbour principle.

  4. Neighbour is a person who is in physical proximity to the defendant.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The neighbour principle is that one must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions that could reasonably be foreseen as likely to injure one's neighbour.

In the tort of defamation,

  1. there may not be a loss of reputation

  2. someone is ridiculed

  3. hatred is generated

  4. there is a loss of reputation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In the tort of defamation, someone is ridiculed.

In law of tort, a person should be called upon to pay for damage caused by his

  1. directions

  2. instructions

  3. capability

  4. fault


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In law of tort, a person should be called upon to pay for damage caused by his fault.

Which one of the following is not an essential element of the tort of conspiracy?

  1. Purpose

  2. Overt act

  3. Concerted action

  4. Intention


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The criminal law often requires one of the conspirators to take an overt step to accomplish the illegal act to demonstrate the reality of their intention to break the law, whereas in a civil conspiracy, an overt act towards accomplishing the wrongful goal may not be required.

A plaintiff has no remedy under strict liability if

  1. the defendant is negligent

  2. there is an escape of a dangerous thing

  3. the plaintiff does not default

  4. the defendant has no statutory authority


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A plaintiff has no remedy under strict liability if the defendant is negligent.

X and Y searching for a gas leak applied a naked light to a gas pipe in turns. Y’s act caused an explosion resulting in damage. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. Y alone is liable as his act caused the damage.

  2. X is vicariously liable for Y’s act.

  3. X and Y are both liable independently.

  4. X and Y are both liable as joint tort-feasors.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Y’s act caused an explosion resulting in damage. Y alone is liable as his act caused the damage.

Persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when their separate shares in the commission of the tort are done in furtherance of a common

  1. intention

  2. interest

  3. design

  4. object


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Persons are said to be joint tort-feasors when their separate shares in the commission of the tort are done in furtherance of a common design.

Employees of a municipality opened a street manhole to correct underground faults. Since they could not complete the work the same day, they covered the manhole by canvass and surrounded the same by warning lamps. In the evening, a child of eight years of age came on to the scene and started playing with the lamp when he stumbled and fell into the manhole sustaining burn injuries. The municipality is

  1. not liable as they acted reasonably

  2. liable because a known source of danger caused damage through unforseeable sequence of events

  3. not liable as injury to the child is not foreseeable

  4. liable because they should have completed their work before leaving


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The municipality is liable because a known source of danger caused damage through unforseeable sequence of events.

In the tort of conspiracy, it is necessary to

  1. form an agreement

  2. cause damage

  3. do an illegal act

  4. do a legal act


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In the law of tort, the legal elements necessary to establish a civil conspiracy are substantially the same as for establishing a criminal conspiracy, i.e. there is an agreement between two or more natural persons to break the law at some time in the future or to achieve a lawful aim by unlawful means.

Which one of the following is a remedy in an action for nuisance in tort?

  1. Private defence

  2. Habeas corpus

  3. Abatement

  4. Specific restitution of property


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Abatement is a remedy in an action for nuisance in tort. Abatement means the summary remedy or removal of a nuisance by the party injured without having recourse to legal proceedings.

A private action lies in public nuisance when the damage caused is

  1. direct

  2. substantial

  3. consequential

  4. special


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An action lies in every case for a private nuisance. It also lies where the nuisance is public, provided that the plaintiff can prove that he has sustained some special injury.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the defence of fair comment in tort of defamation?

  1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
  2. The comment must be an assertion of fact.
  3. The comment must be true.
  4. The comment must not be malicious.
  5. The comment must be an expression of opinion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 1, 4 and 5

  3. 2, 3 and 5

  4. 2, 4 and 5


Correct Option: B
Explanation:
  1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
    1. The comment must not be malicious.
    2. The comment must be an expression of opinion.

A is sleeping in his room at night when B locks his door from outside. B unlocks and opens the door before A gets up in the morning. B is

  1. liable for defamation in tort because he can boast that he had locked A

  2. liable for false imprisonment because B has caused total restraint to A

  3. not liable for defamation in tort because A did not know that he remained locked in the night

  4. not liable for false imprisonment because A did not know that he remained locked in the night


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

B is liable for false imprisonment because he has caused total restraint to A. B is liable for wrongful confinement.

A unlawfully locks B in a room. B has a duplicate key in his pocket by which he can open the door from inside and come out. But B forgets about the key and, as a result, remains locked for two hours. B then remembers that he has a duplicate key and opens the door and comes out. A is

  1. liable for false imprisonment because he acted unlawfully

  2. not liable for false imprisonment because B had a duplicate key by which he could have opened the door and come out

  3. liable for false imprisonment because B had forgotten that he had a duplicate key

  4. not liable because B’s forgetfulness was responsible for B remaining in the room


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A is not liable because B’s forgetfulness was responsible for B remaining in the room. A is not liable for wrongful confinement.

Malicious prosecution is a tort against

  1. police excesses

  2. damaging the dignity of a person

  3. abuse of legal procedure

  4. violation of personal liberty


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Malicious prosecution is a common law intentional tort, and like the tort of abuse of process, its elements include (1) intentionally (and maliciously) instituting and pursuing (or causing to be instituted or pursued) a legal action (civil or criminal) that is (a) brought without probable cause and (b) dismissed in favor of the victim of the malicious prosecution.

Mens rea implies

  1. intention

  2. knowledge

  3. motive

  4. a guilty mind


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Mens rea is an element of criminal responsibility which means a guilty mind or a guilty or wrongful purpose or a criminal intent. 

Which one of the following is not an essential element of the tort of malicious prosecution?

  1. Damage caused to the plaintiff

  2. Absence of reasonable and probable cause

  3. Termination of the case in favour of the plaintiff

  4. Prosecution of the defendant by the plaintiff


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Prosecution of the defendant by the plaintiff is not an essential element of the tort of malicious prosecution. Prosecution of the plaintiff by the defendant is not an essential element of the tort of malicious prosecution.

A, with the intention of marrying a lady B during the life time of his wife X, enters into a wedlock with B. Unknown to A, X had died in an accident just a few hours before the marriage. Here A is liable for

  1. bigamy

  2. attempt to bigamy

  3. preparation to commit bigamy

  4. no offence


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under section 494 of the Indian Penal Code, "whoever, having a husband or wife living, contracts a marriage during the life of the former husband or wife, that marriage is void." In the above case at the time of marriage, X is not living. So, the offence of bigamy under section 494 of the Indian Penal Code is not completed.

Mens rea on the part of the accused is

  1. necessary in all the crimes

  2. not necessary at all

  3. necessary unless excluded expressly or by necessary implication

  4. not required to be proved by the prosecution


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Mens rea in criminal law is viewed as one of the necessary elements of all crimes. The standard common law test of criminal liability is usually expressed in the Latin phrase, actus reus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea, which means "the act is not culpable unless the mind is guilty".

A was under voluntary intoxication when he killed B. The prosecution could not establish that A was capable of formulating the intention to kill. Here, A is guilty of

  1. murder

  2. culpable homicide not amounting to murder

  3. causing death by a rash or negligent act

  4. no offence


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Here, A is guilty of murder.

For determining liability of several persons with the help of Section 34, it is required that these persons should

  1. share the same intention

  2. have the same intention

  3. have the common object

  4. have the same knowledge


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.

A keeps his wife B locked up in a room without food for several days with intention to bring about her death. One day, B escapes from the lock-up and is at verge of collapse when taken to hospital by the villagers. B, however, recovers fully after the treatment. Here,

  1. A is not liable for attempt to murder as he has not done the last act necessary for the commission of the crime

  2. A is not liable for attempt to murder as he still has locus paenitentiae

  3. A is liable for attempt as he has intention to cause death and has done acts towards the commission of the crime which clearly indicate his intention

  4. A is not liable for attempt to murder and is liable for causing bodily harm to the woman


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Here, A is liable for attempt as he has intention to cause death and has done acts towards the commission of the crime which clearly indicate his intention.

A joins a gang of dacoits by reason of a threat of being beaten. He is compelled later on by the decoits to break open the door of a house to facilitate dacoity in which an inmate of the house is killed. Here,

  1. A will not be liable for any offence as he joined the gang under threat of being beaten

  2. A will be liable only for breaking open the door

  3. A will be jointly liable for murder along with other dacoits as he joined the gang under a threat which was short of instant death

  4. A will not be liable for murder as he was standing outside the house and did not know as to what was happening inside the house


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Here, A will not be liable for any offence as he joined the gang under threat of being beaten.

X, servant of a household, agrees with A and B to keep the door of the house open during night to facilitate theft. In accordance with the agreement, X keeps the door open but A and B do not turn up. Here, the offence committed is

  1. attempt

  2. abetment by conspiracy

  3. abetment by instigation

  4. no offence


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A person abets the doing of a thing, who engages with one or more other person or persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing, if an act or illegal omission takes place in pursuance of that conspiracy, and in order to the doing of that thing.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. Abetment of an abetment is also an offence.

  2. To constitute the offence of abetment, it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.

  3. It is not necessary that the person abetted should have the same guilty intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

  4. An abettor cannot be held liable for abetment if the abetted person is not liable.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An abettor can be held liable for abetment if the abetted person is not liable.

A, B, C, D and E allegedly entered the house of X with the common object of taking forcible possession of the house. A, who was carrying a pistol within the knowledge of others, shot X dead in order to take possession. E was acquitted as it could not be proved beyond reasonable doubt that E was present in the assembly. Here,

  1. B, C and D are jointly liable for murder along with A on the basis of Section 149

  2. A, B, C and D are jointly liable for murder on the basis of Section 34

  3. A, B, C and D are liable for constituting an unlawful assembly

  4. A alone is liable for murder and others are not liable for any offence


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Here, A, B, C and D are jointly liable for murder on the basis of common intention under section 34. E is acquitted, so he cannot be liable.

A and B agreed to cause the death of X by poisoning. B, in persuance of the agreement, went to a chemist C’s shop and told him the purpose for which the poison was required. C provided B the poison. The accused were caught before the poison could be administered to X. Here,

  1. A and B are liable for criminal conspiracy but C is not liable

  2. A, B and C are all liable for criminal conspiracy

  3. A, B and C are liable for attempt to murder

  4. A, B and C are not guilty of any offence


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Here, A, B and C are all liable for criminal conspiracy as no attempt was made by any of them in furtherance of criminal conspircay.

An agreement between two or more persons is required for criminal conspiracy under Section 120-A. Which of the following statements is correct in this context?

  1. The agreement must be to do an illegal act by illegal means.

  2. The agreement must be to do an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means.

  3. The agreement must be to commit an offence.

  4. An overt act apart from the agreement is required.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 120-A of the Indian Penal Code states that when two or more persons agree to do or cause to be done – (1) an illegal act or (2) an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated as a criminal conspiracy. 

A speech is punishable as sedition if it

  1. simply excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government

  2. strongly criticises the measures undertaken by the government

  3. is intended or has a tendency to create disorder or disturbance of public peace by resort to violence

  4. advocates boycott of multinational corporations and their products


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A speech is punishable as sedition if it is intended or has a tendency to create disorder or disturbance of public peace by resort to violence.

Which of the following is required as an essential ingredient of ‘sedition’?

  1. Mala fide intention

  2. Intention to disturb the government established by law

  3. Intention to overthrow the government by resort to violent means

  4. Intention to bring or attempt to bring into hatred the government established by law


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An offence of sedition requires bringing or attempting to bring into hatred or contempt or exciting or attempting to excite disaffection towards the Government of India.

On being informed that six persons armed with deadly weapons are coming to loot their house, the inmates of the house fled away in fear of being killed. The accused entered the house and took away the property without use of any violence. The offence committed was

  1. theft

  2. dacoity

  3. attempt to dacoity

  4. robbery


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The offence of theft has been committed by the six persons.

The act of the accused causing death amounts to murder if the act is done

  1. with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death

  2. with the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death

  3. with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of that person

  4. with the intention of causing a simple hurt


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The act of the accused causing death amounts to murder if the act is done with the intention of causing such bodily injury as the offender knows to be likely to cause the death of that person. It is defined in clause second of section 300 of the Indian Penal Code.

Extortion becomes robbery when

  1. force is used in taking away the property

  2. committed by more than one person

  3. property is delivered under the fear of instant death

  4. property is delivered under the fear of an injury


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The offence of extortion becomes robbery if the offender at the time of committing the extortion, in the presence of the person, puts in fear and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death or of instant hurt or of instant wrongful restraint to that person or to some other person and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing so extorted.

The act of the accused amounts to culpable homicide not amounting to murder if it falls under

(1) any one of the Clauses of Section 299 (2) any one of the Clauses of Section 299 but does not fall under any one of the four Clauses of Section 300 (3) any one of the exceptions to Section 300

  1. Only (1)

  2. Both (1) and (3)

  3. Both (2) and (3)

  4. Only (3)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 300 specifies certain situations when the murder is considered as culpable homicide not amounting to murder. These are - If the offender does an act that causes death because of grave and sudden provocation by the other. If the offender causes death while exceeding the right to private defense in good faith. If the offender is a public servant and does an act that he, in good faith, believes to be lawful. If the act happens in a sudden fight in the heat of passion. If the deceased is above 18 and the death is caused by his own consent.

A finds a five-hundred rupee currency note near his office. A is guilty of criminal misappropriation if he

  1. puts the currency note in his pocket

  2. puts a notice on office notice board and waits for reasonable time before using the money

  3. purchases eatables with the money as he is hungry and has no money

  4. gives the money for charity after waiting for some time allowing the owner to claim the money


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A is guilty of criminal misappropriation if he purchases eatables with the money as he is hungry and has no money. It is punishable under section 403 of the Indian Penal Code.

An employer deducts an amount from the salary of an employee as Provident Fund but fails to deposit the amount in the Provident Fund account of the employee. The offence committed by the employer is

  1. cheating

  2. theft

  3. criminal misappropriation

  4. criminal breach of trust


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The offence committed by the employer is criminal breach of trust. An employer is entrusted with the amount of provident fund by the employee which is criminally misappropriated by the employer. Thus, due to entrustment by the employee, the amount of criminal misappropriation is an offence of criminal breach of trust under section 405 of the Indian Penal Code. 

A master asks his servant to sell his cycle to him at less than the market price. This contract can be avoided by the servant on the grounds of

  1. coercion

  2. fraud

  3. undue influence

  4. mistake


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

This contract can be avoided by the servant on the grounds of undue influence. A contract may be seen as undue influence when one party uses undue influence to persuade another party into entering into a contract or the transfer of property which is disadvantageous to the influenced party.

If both the parties to a contract believe in the existence of a subject which in fact does not exist, the agreement would be

  1. unenforceable

  2. void

  3. voidable

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Where both the parties entering into an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.

Which country does not recognise a past consideration?

  1. England

  2. America

  3. India

  4. Germany


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The English law does not recognize a past consideration. According to Anson, a past consideration is a mere sentiment of gratitude or honour prompting a return for benefits received.

When the damages cannot be assessed, the party may be awarded by the court

  1. actual damages

  2. liquidated damages

  3. exemplary damages

  4. nominal damages


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

When the damages cannot be assessed, the party may be awarded by the court nominal damages. Nominal damages are generally recoverable by a plaintiff who successfully establishes that he or she has suffered an injury caused by the wrongful conduct of a defendant, but cannot offer proof of a loss that can be compensated.

“V” places an order with “S” for the supply of 20 sewing machines. “S” could not supply these in time. “V” loses a profitable contract due to this and claims his loss of profit from “S”. But “V” does not succeed as the nature of damage is

  1. foreseeable

  2. remote

  3. ordinary

  4. special


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

"V” does not succeed as the nature of damage is special. 

Which one of the following conditions must be satisfied for making claim under “necessaries” supplied to a person incapable of contracting?

  1. The articles supplied should be necessaries.

  2. The articles supplied should be necessary at the time of sale and delivery.

  3. Necessaries must have been supplied gratituously out of mere kindness.

  4. Necessaries should be supplied out to a person incompetent to contract.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The articles supplied should be necessaries for making claim under “necessaries” supplied to a person incapable of contracting.

“B” accepts the proposal of “A” by posting a letter of acceptance to “A”. The above acceptance

  1. cannot be revoked by “B” as he has already accepted the offer and dropped the letter of acceptance

  2. can be revoked by “B” before the letter of acceptance reaches “A”

  3. can be revoked by “B” as soon as the letter of acceptance reaches “A”

  4. can be revoked by “B” at any time after the letter of acceptance reaches “A”


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

“B” accepts the proposal of “A” by posting a letter of acceptance to “A”. The above acceptance can be revoked by “B” before the letter of acceptance reaches “A”.

In case of conflict of jurisdiction of the courts, the incidence of a contract shall be governed by the law of the place where the

  1. contract is made

  2. contract is performed

  3. acceptor resides

  4. proposer resides


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In case of conflict of jurisdiction of the courts, the incidence of a contract shall be governed by the law of the place where the contract is made.

The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a Court of Law

  1. when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum returns for a promise

  2. when the promisor performs his promise

  3. when the fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of contract is pleaded

  4. always at the discretion of the Court


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given. 

The principle behind the doctrine of pan delicto is that where each party is equally at fault, the law favours the party who actually is

  1. not in possession

  2. in possession

  3. injured and helpless

  4. owner of the things concerned


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The principle behind the doctrine of pan delicto is that where each party is equally at fault, the law favours him who is actually in possession, or that where both parties are equally culpable, the law will leave them where it finds them and will not engage itself to determine the rights as between them.

A quantum meruit claim might arise in the situations some of which are contractual and others quasi-contractual. The plaintiff entered into an agreement to work for a periodical and as per the agreement, he was to receive a lumpsum amount on completion of his work. When the plaintiff had written part of the work, the defendant had already abandoned the project. The plaintiff was held entitled to sue for the work already done because the plaintiff’s claim was

  1. contractual

  2. tortous

  3. quasi-contractual

  4. partly contractual and partly tortous


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The plaintiff entered into an agreement to work for a periodical and as per the agreement, he was to receive a lumpsum amount on completion of his work. When the plaintiff had written part of the work, the defendant had already abandoned the project. The plaintiff was held entitled to sue for the work already done because the plaintiff’s claim was contractual.

A standard form of contract is the one in which

  1. the terms are fixed by the government of the state to which the contracting party belongs

  2. the terms are pre-determined by the custom of the trade to which the contracting parties belong

  3. the terms on which mercantile transactions of common occurrence are to be carried out

  4. the terms are fixed by one of the parties in advance and one open to acceptance by any one


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A standard form of contract is the one in which the terms are fixed by one of the parties in advance and one open to acceptance by any one.

Consider the following statements with regard to “Uberrima fides:

  1. It falls within a class of cases which require utmost good faith.
  2. Every contract is a contract, “Uberrima tides”.
  3. Contract of insurance is an example of “Uberrima fides”.
  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

  2. 1 and 3 are correct.

  3. 2 and 3 are correct.

  4. 1 and 2 are correct.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Uberrima fides is a Latin phrase meaning "utmost good faith". It is the name of a legal doctrine which governs insurance contracts.

Which one of the following is a contingent contract?

  1. “A” insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire.

  2. “A” sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of price with interest.

  3. A guard is appointed at a swimming pooi for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons.

  4. A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the tender when the borrower will be in funds.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen.“A” insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire. It is a contingent contract.

The plaintiff sees the defendant's child falling in water. He saves the child from drowning. Later the defendant promises to give him Rs. 1000. In this context, which one of the following propositions is correct?

  1. The defendant's liability is statutory.

  2. The defendant's liability arises in quasi-contract.

  3. The defendant is not liable as there is no contract.

  4. The defendant is liable because the agreement is not “nudum pactum”.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A quasi-contract is a legal agreement created by the courts between two parties who did not have a previous obligation to each other. In above facts, the defendant's liability arises in quasi-contract.

 

A property worth Rs. 25,000 was agreed to be sold by “X” for Rs. 8,000. However, X’s mother moves for setting aside the agreement on the proof that “X” is a congenital “idiot”. In this context, which one of the following is correct?

  1. The mother will not succeed.

  2. The mother will succeed.

  3. The mother is bound to execute the agreement.

  4. The “idiot” can avoid the agreement.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

X's mother proved that he was an idiot, incapable of understanding the transaction and that he mostly wandered about. The sale was held void. X's mother will succeed.

Which one of the following constitutes an offer in a self-service store?

  1. Display of goods at the store window

  2. When the customer asks for some goods

  3. There is no offer in such a case

  4. Picking up an article and approaching the cashier’s desk for payment


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Picking up an article and approaching the cashier’s desk for payment constitues an offer in a self-service store.

Liquidated damages are essentially the

  1. payment of money stipulated as warning to the offending party

  2. payment of compensation determined by court

  3. compensation arbitrarily determined by aggrieved party

  4. genuine covenanted pre-estimate of damages


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Liquidated damages are essentially the payment of money stipulated as warning to the offending party.

The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete when

  1. acceptance is spoken on phone

  2. acceptance comes to the knowledge of party proposing

  3. acceptance is put in course of transmission

  4. acceptor has done whatever is required to be done by him


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The communication of acceptance through telephone is regarded as complete when acceptance comes to the knowledge of party proposing.

The defence of “non est factum” is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake as to the

  1. nature of contract

  2. identity of the contracting party

  3. quality of the promise made by other contracting party

  4. quality of the subject matter of the contract


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

There is a legal maxim, non est factum, which means "not his deed" and a special defence in contract law to allow a person to avoid having to respect a contract that she or he signed because of certain reasons. The defence of “non est factum” is available to the contracting party who has committed mistake as to the nature of contract. 

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