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Odisha Judicial Service Examination (Prelims) - 2014

Description: Odisha Judicial Service Examination (Preliminary) (Year NOt Mention)
Number of Questions: 100
Created by:
Tags: Odisha Judicial Service Examination (Preliminary) Constitutional Law Civil Law Code of Criminal Procedure Law of Evidence Criminal Law Specific Relief and Limitation law Property Law Law of Contracts Family Law
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The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Art. 19 (1)(c) concerned

  1. associations

  2. unions

  3. organisations

  4. co-operative societies


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted the words "or co-operative societies" after the words "or union" in part III under Art. 19 (1)(c) of the Constitution.

Indian Constitution was enacted and adopted on

  1. 26th January, 1950

  2. 26th November, 1949

  3. 15th August, 1947

  4. 14th August, 1947


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.

The case of Jaya Bachchan v Union of India relates to

  1. territorial constituencies

  2. membership in Rajya Sabha

  3. office of profit

  4. dissolution of Lok Sabha


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In this case, Samajwadi Party leader Jaya Bachchan was disqualified as Rajya Sabha member on the grounds of holding an office of profit. 

The Supreme Court of India permitted passive euthanasia subject to certain guidelines in the case of

  1. Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaugh v. Union of India

  2. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab

  3. P. Rathinam v. Union of India

  4. Maruti Sripati Dubal v. State of Maharashtra


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Passive euthanasia is legal in India. The Supreme Court of India legalised passive euthanasia by means of withdrawal of life support to patients in a permanent vegetative state. 

New states are formed under Art. 3 of the Constitution by

  1. a law of the Parliament

  2. Constitutional amendment under Art. 368

  3. a law of the State Legislature concerned

  4. a law of the State Legislature concerned and law of Parliament


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution states that Parliament may by law form a new state by separation of a territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state. 

Art. 123 deals with

  1. power of the President to dissolve Lok Sabha

  2. power of the Governor to promulgate ordinances

  3. power of the President to promulgate ordinances

  4. power of the Parliament to pass bills


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law making powers to promulgate ordinances when either of the two houses of Parliament is not in session and hence, it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament.

Removal or suspension of a member of Public Service Commission shall be done in accordance with

  1. Art. 316

  2. Art. 317

  3. Art. 350

  4. Art. 351


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Article 317 of the Indian Constitution states provision in accordance with removal or suspension of a member of Public Service Commission.

Provision for imposing the President’s rule in case of failure of constitutional machinery in the states is provided under

  1. Art. 353

  2. Art. 360

  3. Art. 352

  4. Art. 356


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The phrase "President's rule" refers to the imposition of Article 356 of the Constitution of India on a state whose constitutional machinery has failed. In the event that a state government is not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of central government. In other words, it is "under President's rule".

Debts between a plaintiff and defendant, one debt may be settled against another, can be a statutory defence to a plaintiff’s action and is called

  1. cross-claim

  2. set-off

  3. cross-demand

  4. cross-decree


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Set-off means a claim set up against another. It is an extinction of debts of which two persons are reciprocally debtors to one another by the credits of which they are reciprocally creditors to one another. Where there are mutual debts between the plaintiff and the defendant, one debt may be settled against the other.

According to Art. 233, the appointment of a district judge shall be done by

  1. President in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned

  2. Governor of the state concerned in consultation with the High Court of the state concerned

  3. Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

  4. Collegium of the High Court


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Article 233 of the Indian Constitution, appointments of persons to be and the posting and promotion of district judges in any state shall be made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state. 

Existence of two suits, by parties litigating under same title, one previously instituted which is pending at present and the other filed later, wherein a matter in issue in the subsequently filed suit is directly and substantially in issue in the other and the relief claimed in the subsequent suit can effectively be passed by the court of previous instance. Which section of CPC decides the fate of the subsequently filed suit and its proceeding?

  1. S. 11

  2. S. 9

  3. S. 10

  4. S. 12


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides rule with regard to stay of suits where things are under consideration or pending adjudication by a court.

Doctrine of pith and substance relates to

  1. interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same field

  2. serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violates Fundamental Rights

  3. interpretation of statutes to solve problems arising out of territorial nexus

  4. interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Pith means "true nature" or "essence" and substance means the essential nature underlying a phenomenon. Thus, the doctrine of pith and substance relates to finding out the true nature of a statute. This doctrine is widely used when deciding whether a state is within its rights to create a statute that involves a subject mentioned in Union List of the Constitution.

Name the three pillars on which the foundation of every order of injunction rests.

  1. Prima facie case, injury with damage and balance of inconvenience

  2. Prima facie case, reparable injury and balance of convenience

  3. Prima facie case, irreparable injury and balance of convenience

  4. Prima fade case, damage without injury and balance of convenience


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

At the stage of passing an interlocutory order such as on an application for the grant of ad interim injunction under Rule 1 or 2 of Order 39 of the CPC, the competent court shall have to form its opinion on the availability of a prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury, the three pillars on which rests the foundation of any order of injunction.

An attachment before judgement order takes away

  1. right to ownership

  2. right to file suit

  3. power to alienate property

  4. capacity of execution of a decree


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the objective of attachment before judgment must be to prevent future transfer or alienation. 

Where a party to a suit requires information as to facts from the opposite party, it may administer to its adversary a series of questions. It is called

  1. question petition

  2. question pamphlet

  3. interrogatory

  4. discovery


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Where a party to a suit requires information as to facts from the opposite party, it may administer to its adversary a series of questions. These questions are called interrogatories.

______ is a suit filed by or against one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having the same interest in the suit.

  1. Joint suit

  2. Representative suit

  3. Collusive suit

  4. Collective suit


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Order I Rule 8, it is defined as a suit filed by or against one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having the same interest in the suit.

_______ is to enable subordinate courts to obtain in non-appealable cases the opinion of the High Court in the absence of a question of law and thereby avoid the commission of an error which cannot be remedied later on.

  1. Review

  2. Reference

  3. Appeal

  4. Revision


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Section 113 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a reference is to enable subordinate courts to obtain in non-appealable cases the opinion of the High Court in the absence of a question of law and thereby avoid the commission of an error which cannot be remedied later on.

A person appointed by the court to protect, preserve and manage a property during the pendency of litigation is called

  1. amicus curiae

  2. preserver

  3. protector

  4. receiver


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A receiver is a person appointed by a court or judge thereof to take charge of a property during the pendency of a civil action or upon a judgment or order therein and to manage and dispose of it as the court may direct.

What is the objective of investigation?

  1. To collect evidence that aids the court in finding out the truth

  2. To collect information that helps in punishing a person

  3. To collect information to arrest a person

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The object of investigation under criminal law is to collect evidence that aids the court in finding out the truth, whether the accused is guilty or not.

A, a railway company, is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, demurrage and freight, but rival claims have been made by B and C adversely to each other. A can institute

  1. an application to decide the same

  2. an interpleader suit

  3. a friendly suit

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In an interpleader suit, the plaintiff holds movable or immovable property and files the suit only to ascertain as to whom he should deliver the property because the defendants claim the property against each other or they interplead against each other. Thus, A can file interpleader suit.

Which of the following propositions is/are correct?

(I) Legal set off requires a court fee, but no court-fee is required in the case of an equitable set off. (ii) In a legal set off, amount claimed can be time barred and in an equitable set off, claim cannot be allowed if it is time barred. (iii) In a legal set off, it is not necessary that cross demands arise out of same transaction and in an equitable set off, cross demands must arise out of the same transaction. (iv) Legal set off can be for any amount not ascertained and an equitable set off may be allowed only for an unascertained amount.

  1. Only (i) is correct

  2. Only (i) and (iii) are correct

  3. Both (i) and (iv) are correct

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In legal set off, claim need not originate from the same transaction and in equiatable set off, claim must originate from the same transaction.  In legal set off, the sum must be ascertained, but in equitable set off, the sum need not be ascertained.

______ shall establish a Court of Session for every sessions division.

  1. State Government

  2. Central Government

  3. Supreme Court

  4. President of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A court is presided over by a judge appointed by the High Court of that particular state.

Under Section 37 of CrPC, every person is bound to assist a magistrate or police officer in taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such magistrate or police officer is authorised to arrest

  1. in the prevention or suppression of a breach of peace

  2. in the prevention of any injury to be committed to any railway, canal, telegraph or public property

  3. in all of the above cases

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Every person is bound to assist a magistrate or police officer reasonably demanding his aid in taking or preventing the escape of any other person whom such magistrate or police officer is authorised to arrest or in the prevention or suppression of a breach of peace or in the prevention of any injury attempted to be committed to any railway, canal, telegraph or public property.  

Any police officer may arrest without warrant any person

  1. who is concerned in any cognizable offence

  2. who has been proclaimed as an offender

  3. who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any armed forces

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with the provisions when a police officer may arrest without warrant. All of the above cases fall under Section 41 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.

Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in

  1. Indian Evidence Act

  2. Criminal Procedure Code

  3. Bankers Book Evidence Act

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Exception to this rule is contained in section 65 of the Evidence Act.

______ of the Cr. P. C. deals with medical examination of a victim of rape.

  1. Section 164

  2. Section 164 A

  3. Section 166

  4. Section 166 B


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 164 A of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with medical examination of a victim of rape.

F. I. R. under Section 154 of the Cr. P. C. is not a substantive piece of evidence. Its only use is to contradict or corroborate the matter thereof. It was held in ______ case.

  1. Shambhu Dass v. State of Assam, AIR 2010 SC 3300

  2. Ravishwar Manjhi v. State of Jharkhand AIR 2009 SC 1262

  3. State of Karnataka v. K. Yarappa Reddy 1999 (8) SCC 715

  4. Sheelam Ramesh v. State of Andhra Pradesh 1999 (8) SCC 369


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The court in Shambhu Dass v. State of Assam, AIR 2010 SC 3300 held that neither FIR nor inquest report nor post-mortem report can be regarded as substantive piece of evidence. 

______ confers the power upon the High Court to transfer cases and appeals.

  1. Section 406

  2. Section 407

  3. Section 405

  4. Section 404


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 407 of the Code of Criminal Procedure confers the power upon the High Court to transfer cases and appeals. 

Causing miscarriage, an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), with the permission of the court before which any prosecution for such offence is pending, may be compounded by the

  1. person who caused miscarriage

  2. husband of the woman to whom miscarriage is caused

  3. woman to whom miscarriage is caused

  4. caretaker of the woman


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Causing miscarriage is an offence punishable under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), with the permission of the court before which any prosecution for such offence is pending, may be compounded by the woman to whom miscarriage is caused.

Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of a trial, the prosecutor and the accused

  1. shall be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined

  2. shall be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined, unless the court for reasons to be recorded in writing, considers that the prosecutor or the accused, as the case may be, desires to recall or re-examine such witness for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of justice

  3. shall not be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined

  4. shall not be allowed to recall or resummon and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined because such witness may be vexed


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Section 217 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the commencement of the trial, the prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall or re-summon, and examine with reference to such alteration or addition any witness who may have been examined, unless the court for reasons to be recorded in writing, considers that the prosecutor or the accused, as the case may be, desires to recall or re-examine such witness for the purpose of vexation or delay or for defeating the ends of justice. 

Reliability of multiple dying declarations came for discussion under

  1. Vimal v. State of Maharashtra, 2006 AIR SCW 5953

  2. Pratap Mishra v. State of Orissa, AIR 1977 SC 1307

  3. State of Maharashtra v. Dr Praful B Desai (2003) 4 5CC 601

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 32 – Multiple dying declarations – Reliability – Accused was named in all dying declarations as per who poured kerosene on deceased and set him on fire. Dying declarations though more than one not contradictory to and inconsistent with each other. 

Which of the following persons may be charged jointly?

(i) Persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction (ii) Persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence (iii) Persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction (iv) Persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, within the meaning of Section 219 committed by them jointly within the period of twelve months

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  2. (i), (iii) and (iv)

  3. All of the above

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

As per Section 223 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the following persons may be charged and tried together, namely: (a) persons accused of the same offence committed in the course of the same transaction; (b) persons accused of an offence and persons accused of abetment of, or attempt to commit, such offence; (c) persons accused of more than one offence of the same kind, within the meaning of Section 219 committed by them jointly within the period of twelve months; (d) persons accused of different offences committed in the course of the same transaction 

‘The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under S. 12 of the Indian Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof.” It was so held in

  1. Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik Mohammed Hasan AIR 2006AP 48

  2. Siddaramesh v. State of Karnataka (2010) 3 SCC 152

  3. Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 2007 SC 107

  4. Somwanti v. State of Punjab, AIR 1963 SC 151


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access which is a negative proof; Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik Mohammed Hasan, AIR 2006 AP 48.

Propositions regarding confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross examination are

(i) no evidence within the meaning of S.23 of Evidence Act and cannot be the foundation of a conviction (ii) the only limited uses which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists (iii) a weak type of evidence and is much weaker than the evidence of an approver

  1. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct

  2. Only (i) and (iii) are correct

  3. Only (i) and (ii) are correct

  4. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Propositions regarding confession of a co-accused, not required to be on oath and cannot be tested by cross examination are the only limited uses which can be made of a confession of a co-accused by way of furnishing an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists and is a weak type of evidence and is much weaker than the evidence of an approver.

An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars is a

  1. presumption of fact

  2. presumption of law

  3. conclusive proof

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act says that the court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of any credit unless corroborated in material particulars. Sec. 114 the word “may’ is used. 

A dispute regarding handwriting can be proved by

  1. calling an expert

  2. examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A dispute regarding handwriting can be proved by calling and expert or examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document.

“The doubt, the benefit of which the accused is entitled, must be such as, rational thinking, sensible man may fairly and reasonably entertain, not the doubts of a vacillating mind that has not the moral courage to decide but shelters itself, in a vain and idle skepticism. There must be doubt which a man may honestly and conscientiously entertain.”

  1. Cockburn

  2. Lord Halsbury

  3. Lord Black

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Cockburn, C.J. said, "the doubt, the benefit of which the accused is entitled, must be such as rational thinking sensible man may fairly and reasonably entertain, not the doubts of a vacillating mind that has not the moral courage to decide but shelters itself, in a vain and idle skepticism.

A subsequent case which referred to the principles of Praful Desai judgment is

  1. Dr. Kumar Saha v. Dr. Sukumar Mukheijee

  2. Nivrutti Pandurang Kokate v. Maharashtra

  3. Goutham Kundu v. State of West Bengal

  4. Mohd. Kalam v. Bihar


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Dr. Kumar Saha v. Dr. Sukumar Mukheijee is the case which referred to the principles of Praful Desai judgement.

Section _______ of the Evidence Act provides that where a security procedure has been applied to an electronic record at a specific time, the record is deemed to be a secure electronic record from such time until the time of verification.

  1. 85 A

  2. 85B

  3. 67A

  4. 65 B


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 85B of the Indian evidence act states that In any proceedings involving a secure electronic record, the Court shall presume unless contrary is proved, that the secure electronic record has not been altered since the specific point of time to which the secure status relates. 

A, being a public servant directed by law to take property in execution, in order to satisfy a decree pronounced in B’s favour by a court of law, knowingly disobeys that discretion of law, with the knowledge that he is likely thereby to cause injury to B. A has committed the offence defined in Section

  1. 166

  2. 167

  3. 157

  4. 158


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under section 166 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever being a public servant knowingly diso­beys any direction of the law as to the way in which he is to conduct himself as such public servant, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely that he will by such disobedience cause injury to any person, shall be punished. A has committed the offence defined in Section 166.

“The time-tested rule is that acquittal of a guilty person should preferred to conviction of an innocent person. Unless th prosecution establishes the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt a conviction cannot be passed on the accused. A criminal court cannot afford to deprive liberty of the appellants, lifelong liberty, without having at least a reasonable level of certainty that the appellants were the real culprits.” In which case did Supreme Court hold so?

  1. Rang Bahadur Singh v. State of U.P. AIR 2000 SC 1209

  2. Ramanath v. State, AIR 1953 SC 420 (Supreme Court)

  3. Sardul Singh Caveeshar v. State of Bombay, AIR 1957 SC 747 (Supreme Court)

  4. State v. Nalini, AIR 1999 SC 2640 (Supreme Court)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Hon'ble Apex Court in Rang Bahadur Singh V. State of U.P. reported in AIR 2000 SC 1209 has held as follows: “The time-tested rule is that acquittal of a guilty person should be preferred to conviction of an innocent person. Unless the prosecution establishes the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt, a conviction cannot be passed on the accused.

Which of the following does not form part of Actus Reus?

  1. Thought of conduct

  2. Result of conduct

  3. Circumstances as are specified by law

  4. Conduct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Thoughts alone can never be punished as crime. Lawmakers are hesitant to impose controls on what people may think, and such laws would also present profound problems of proof and enforcement.

Under which of the following cases can a statute exclude mens rea?

  1. Public nuisance

  2. Cases in public interest

  3. Both of the above

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A statute can exclude mens rea in case where the public nuisance or public interest is in issue. Mens rea by necessary implication may be excluded from a statute only where it is absolutely clear that the implementation of the object of the statute would otherwise be defeated. 

Criminal conspiracy is defined in

  1. Section 120

  2. Section 120-B

  3. Section 120-A

  4. Section 120-D


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Criminal conspiracy is defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code. 

Dacoity can cover

  1. robbery based on extortion

  2. robbery based on theft

  3. Both of the above

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 390 of the Indian Penal Code defines robbery. According to this section, robbery is the aggravated form of either theft or extortion because in all robbery, there is either theft or extortion.

 

A with a view to murder D enters D’s bedroom at night when D is out of station. A is guilty of

  1. house trespass

  2. attempt to murder

  3. murder

  4. no offence


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

House-trespass is treated as an aggravated form of offence of criminal trespass. The difference between criminal trespass as defined in Section 441 and house-trespass as defined under Section 442 is that the offence of criminal trespass is committed when a person enters into or upon any ‘property’ of any one with intent to commit an offence or to intimate or to insult or to annoy him while house trespass can only be used as a human dwelling or any place used for worshipping or as a place for the custody of property. So, A has committed the offence of house trespass defined under section 442.

X meets Z on the National Highway, shows a knife and demands money, and gold ornaments found on the body of Z. He has committed

  1. theft

  2. dacoity

  3. extortion

  4. robbery


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person or to any other and thereby dishon­estly induces the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property or valuable security or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into a valuable security, commits “extor­tion". X has committed the offence of extortion.

Use of violence by a member of unlawful assembly in furtherance of their common object will constitute offence of

  1. rioting

  2. assault

  3. affray

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Whenever force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by any member thereof in prosecution of the common object of such assembly, every member of such assembly is guilty of the offence of rioting under section 146 of the Indian Penal Code.

All instruments for the purpose of limitation shall be deemed to be made with reference to

  1. Gregorian calendar

  2. English calendar

  3. Roman calendar

  4. Nanak Shahi calendar


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

As per section 24 of the Limitation act, all instruments shall for the purposes of this Act be deemed to be made with reference to the Gregorian calendar.

The defence of consent has no application in cases of

  1. causing grievous hurt

  2. causing death

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

For example, the offence of battery requires the application of 'unlawful' physical force, where the person consents to being touched, the application of force is 'lawful'. The defence of consent does not apply to all crimes. Indeed it can never be used for murder or grievous hurt.

The essence of sedition under the Indian Penal Code is

  1. result

  2. intention

  3. both intention and result

  4. benefit or gain of the accused


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Law of Sedition relates to the uttering of the seditious words, the publication of seditious libels, and conspiracies to do an act for the furtherance of a seditious intention.

Section 3 of the Limitation Act does not apply to

  1. suits

  2. applications

  3. executions

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 3 of the Limitation act applies to every suit instituted, appeal preferred and application made.

Which of the following claims under S.3 of the Limitation Act is/are treated as a separate suit?

  1. Set off

  2. Counter claim

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under section 3 (1) clause (b) of the Limitation Act, it has been laid down by the legislature that any claim by the way of a set off or a counter claim shall be treated as a separate suit.

In order to attract Section 4 of the Limitatiori Act, the court should be closed

  1. for the whole day

  2. during any part of normal working hours

  3. for substantial part of the day

  4. for more than half of the normal working hours


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 4 state that where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day when the court re-opens. A court shall be deemed to be closed on any day within the meaning of this section if during any part of its normal working hours, it remains closed on that day.

Section 3 of the Limitation Act is applicable to the period prescribed by any

  1. local law

  2. special law

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 3 of the Limitation Act is applicable to the period prescribed by any local law or special law. Limitation act is a procedural law, so it is applicable to both.

Time barred debt can be claimed as

  1. set off

  2. counterclaim

  3. afresh suit

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

If any debt is barred by time, that means it is barred by law. It cannot be claimed by the way of instituion of suit. Time barred debt does not mean that the debt does not exist.

Under the Limitation Act, legal disabilities include

  1. minority

  2. insanity

  3. idiocy

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Only disabilities covered by s. 6 are minority, lunacy and idiocy of the person entitled to sue or file an application for execution. The insolvency of the parties does not attract section 6 of the Limitation Act.

Under the Transfer of Property Act, attached to the earth means

  1. rooted in the earth as trees and shrubs

  2. embedded in the earth as walls and buildings

  3. attached to what is so embedded for the beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is attached

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under the Transfer of Property Act, attached to the earth means-(a) rooted in the earth, as in the case of trees and shrubs;(b) imbedded in the earth, as in the case of walls or buildings; or(c) attached to what is so embedded for the permanent beneficial enjoyment of that to which it is attached;

Acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if the person making it is

  1. relative of the person under liability

  2. agent of the person under liability

  3. servant of the person under liability

  4. master of the person under liability


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under section 18 explanation (b) of the Limitation act, it has been provided that acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if the person making is an agent of the person under liability. 

An Ex parte decree can be set aside within 30 days from

  1. the date of the Ex parte decree

  2. the knowledge of the Ex parte decree where summon or notice was not duly served

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Article 123 of the limitation act provides that an Ex parte decree can be set aside within 30 days from the date of the decree or where the summons or notice was not duly served when the applicant had knowledge of the decree.

Under the Transfer of Property Act, instrument means

  1. non-testamentary instrument

  2. testamentary instrument

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

As per section 3 of the transfer of property act, instrument means non-testamentary instrument.

Under Section 19 for the extended period of limitation, part payment must be

  1. in the handwriting of the person making the payment

  2. in the writing signed by the person making the payment

  3. Either (1) or (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The words of section 19 state that where payment on account of a debt or of interest on a legacy is made before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or legacy or by his agent duly authorised in this behalf, a fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the payment was made.

How can a transfer of property be made?

  1. Orally

  2. By a registered instrument

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Transfer of property can be made orally or by registered instrument. A transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law. 

Which section of the Transfer of Property Act explains, “He who accepts the benefit under the instrument must adopt the whole of it”?

  1. S. 52

  2. S. 41

  3. S. 35

  4. S. 53 A


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 35 of the Transfer of property act states that where a person professes to transfer property which he has no right to transfer, and as part of the same transaction confers any benefit on the owner of the property, such owner must elect either to confirm such transfer or to dissent from it. 

Actionable claim means

  1. unsecured debt

  2. any debt

  3. claim recognised by civil courts to grant relief

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Actionable claim means a claim to any debt, other than a debt secured by mortgage of immovable property or by hypothecation or pledge of movable property, or to any beneficial interest in movable property not in the possession, either actual or constructive, of the claimant, which the civil courts recognise as affording grounds for relief, whether such debt or beneficial interest be existent, accruing, conditional or contingent. 

Where the proposal made is to be accepted by letters sent through post, the contract is completed the moment

  1. the letter accepting the proposal is posted

  2. when the letter reaches the proposer

  3. the postman delivers the letter to the proposer

  4. the postman delivers the letter to a person other than the proposer


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Where the proposal made is to be accepted by letters sent through post, the contract is completed, the moment the letter accepting the proposal is posted.

The act of transferring property during the pendency of a proceeding makes the transfer

  1. void

  2. voidable

  3. neither void nor voidable

  4. illegal


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 52 of the transfer of property act uses "the property cannot be trasnferred or otherwise dealth with. At the same time, the transfer pendente lite is not void but is only subject to the outcome of the litigation. Thus, the transfer is voidable at the instance of the affected party". 

In an unconscionable contract, the burden of proving that the contract was not induced by undue influence lies on

  1. person who is in a position to dominate the will of another

  2. person who accepted the proposal

  3. friend of the acceptor

  4. friend of the proposer


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 16 (3) of the Indian Contract act states that where a person who is in a position to dominate the will of another, enters into a contract with him and the transaction appears on the face of it or on the evidence adduced to be unconscionable, the burden of proving that such contract was not induced by undue influence shall be upon the person in a position to dominate the will of the other. 

To create an interest for the benefit of an unborn person, which of the following requirements should be there?

  1. No direct interest

  2. Prior interest

  3. Absolute interest

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created for the benefit of a person not in existence at the date of the transfer, subject to a prior interest created by the same transfer, the interest created for the benefit of such person shall not take effect unless it extends to the whole of the remaining interest of the transferor in the property. 

Which of the following is not a transfer of property?

  1. Sale

  2. Mortgage

  3. Lease

  4. Partition


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Partition is not a transfer of property. Partition is just the destribution of share of coparceners which is already vested in them.

Where the order, in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is not expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order which

  1. the nature of the transaction requires

  2. is required by the acceptor

  3. is required by the proposer

  4. is required by the arbitrator appointed by the proposer and acceptor


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

As per section 52 of the Indian Contract act, where the order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed is expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order and where the orders is not expressly fixed by the contract, they shall be performed in that order which the nature of transaction requires. 

A revokes by telegram his proposal to B, before its acceptance by B, to sell his house at a certain price.

The revocation is complete against A when

  1. the telegram is dispatched

  2. the telegram is returned undelivered

  3. the telegram is sent to a friend of A

  4. B learns that the telegram has been received by A


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A revokes by telegram his proposal to B, before its acceptance by B, to sell his house at a certain price. The revocation is complete against A when the telegram is dispatched.

A contract is voidable if consent to an agreement

  1. is based on a mistake as to law

  2. was under a mistake of fact

  3. is under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement

  4. is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 19 of Indian Contract act states that when consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. 

One person is deemed to be an agnate of another if they are related to each other

  1. by blood or adoption wholly through a male

  2. not wholly through males

  3. wholly through a female

  4. not wholly through females


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 3 of the Hindu Succession act deals with definition clause. It provides that one person is deemed to be an agnate of another if they are related to each other wholly through males. 

The general rules of succession of a Hindu male dying intestate are contained in Section _________ of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

  1. S. 7

  2. S. 8

  3. S. 14

  4. S. 15


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The general rules of succession of a Hindu male dying intestate are contained in Section 8 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

Under an agreement, A sells to B his skin bleaching products business “Intimate Whitener” and the goodwill of the business with the condition that A will not carry on such similar business throughout India so long as B carries it on anywhere in India. The agreement records that this condition is reasonable and that no court will have jurisdiction to examine this condition. The agreement is

  1. void

  2. voidable

  3. voidable in part

  4. void in part


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In an agreement, A sells to B his skin bleaching products business “Intimate Whitener” and the goodwill of the business with the condition that A will not carry on such similar business throughout India so long as B carries it on anywhere in India. The agreement records that this condition is reasonable and that no court will have jurisdiction to examine this condition. The agreement is void as it violating the article 301 of the Constitution. B cannot impose restriction on A to carry on business throught India. A specified area or time can be the criteria of restriction in restraint of trade.

Under S. 19 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an intestate, they shall take the property as

  1. tenants in common

  2. joint tenants

  3. Either (1) or (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under section 19 of the Hindu succession act 1956, If two or more heirs succeed together to the property of an intestate, they shall take the property-(a) save as otherwise expressly provided in this Act, per capita and not per stripes; and(b) as tenants-in-common and not as joint tenants. 

Husband in Entry (a) of Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 includes

  1. husband of a subsisting marriage

  2. a divorced husband

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Husband in Entry (a) of Section 15(1) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 includes husband of a subsisting marriage. A divorced husband does not have a status of husband after divorce.

An agent has to pay compensation to his principal for his misconduct which results in losses that are

  1. indirect result of the misconduct

  2. remotely caused by the misconduct

  3. indirectly and remotely caused by the misconduct

  4. directly caused by the misconduct


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The agent is bound to act with reasonable diligence and to use such skill as he possesses and to make compensation to his principal in respect of the direct consequences of his neglect, want of skill or misconduct, but not in respect of loss or damage which are indirectly or remotely caused by such neglect, want of skillor misconduct.

The domicile of a wife under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is

  1. the place of her birth

  2. the place of her education

  3. the place where her family last resided

  4. that of her husband


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The domicile of a wife under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is that of her husband. The wife's domicile no longer follows that of her husband if they are separated by the sentence of a competent Court.

An Indian Christian under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 means

  1. native of India

  2. native of India who is or in good faith is of unmixed Asiatic descent

  3. native of India who is or in good faith professes the Catholic religion

  4. native of India who is or in good faith claims to be of unmixed Asiatic descent and who professes any form of the Christian religion


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An Indian Christian under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 means a native of India who is or in good faith claims to be of unmixed Asiatic descent and who professes any form of the Christian religion.

Which of the given conditions apply(ies) to create a vested interest?

  1. It is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.

  2. It is transferable and heritable.

  3. It accrues in the present and immediately, even though the enjoyment is postponed.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession. An intention that an interest shall not be vested is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the enjoyment thereof is postponed, or whereby a prior interest in the same property is given or reserved to some other person, or whereby income arising from the property is directed to be accumulated until the time of enjoyment arrives, or from a provision that if a particular event shall happen the interest shall pass to another person.

The rights of a child in the womb at the time of the death of a Hindu intestate are provided under the Hindu Succession Act in

  1. S. 19

  2. S. 20

  3. S. 21

  4. S. 22


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 20 states a child who was in the womb at the time of death of an intestate and who is subsequently born alive has the same right to inherit to the intestate as if he or she had been born before the death of the intestate and the inheritance shall be deemed to vest in such a case with effect from the date of the death of the intestate. 

The property of an intestate where he has left no lineal descendants can be distributed under the Indian Succession Act, 1925 only after deducting the share of

  1. his widow

  2. his children

  3. his step children

  4. his parents


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 41 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 provides that the property of an intestate where he has left no lineal descendants can be distributed only after deducting the share of his widow.

No suit for the recovery of possession can be filed under S. 6 of the Specific Relief Act after the expiry of

  1. six months from the date of dispossession

  2. nine months from the date of dispossession

  3. twelve months from the date of dispossession

  4. eighteen months from the date of dispossession


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 6(2) of the specific relief act provides that no suit under this section shall be brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession.

X sells a property to Z with a condition that he must live in it. The condition is

  1. void

  2. voidable

  3. legal

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

X sells a property to Z with a condition V that he must live in it. The condition is void. Where property is transferred subject to a condition or limitation absolutely restraining the transferee or any person claiming under him from parting with or disposing of his interest in the property, the condition or limitation is void.

Privileged wills are those made by

  1. any person above 18 years of age

  2. soldiers

  3. soldiers or airmen engaged in warfare or a mariner at sea

  4. mariner at land


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Privileged wills are made by those who are in active military service, which means that they are either working in an operational area in the forces or are just about to be posted to one. 

Which of the following grounds will prevent a plaintiff from seeking specific enforcement?

  1. Plaintiff has violated an essential term of the contract.

  2. Plaintiff has acted fraudulently.

  3. Plaintiff has acted at variance.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 16 clause b of the specific relief act states that specific performance cannot be enforced in favor of a person who has become incaapble of performing or violates any essential term of the contract or acts in fraud of the contract or wilfully acts at variance with.

Under Section 20 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, a husband on marriage

  1. acquires an interest in the wife’s property

  2. does not acquire an interest in the wife’s property

  3. becomes the trustee of the wife’s property

  4. becomes the guardian of the wife’s property


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Section 20 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, no person shall by marriage acquire any interest in the property of the person whom he or she marries or become incapable of doing any act in respect of his or her own property which he or she could have done if unmarried.

Which of the following can be specifically enforced?

  1. A contract for sale of property under allotment

  2. Mere agreement to enter into a contract

  3. Contract to marry

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Apex Court held that the jurisdiction to order specific performance of a contract is based on the existence of a valid and enforceable contract. 

A defendant can take which of the following defences in a suit for specific performance?

  1. Money is adequate compensation

  2. Uncertainty of the terms of the contract

  3. Contract made in excess of power

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All of the above are valid defences and can be claimed by the defendant in the suit of specific performance. 

Relief of specific performance can be granted for enforcing

  1. civil rights

  2. penal laws

  3. civil rights and penal laws

  4. neither civil rights nor penal laws


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under section 4 of the specific relief act, it has been provided that specific relief can be granted only for the purpose of enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of enforcing a penal law. 

A bailor is liable for damages arising to the bailee from the faults in the goods if he did not disclose to the bailee his awareness of all

  1. faults

  2. faults which interfere with the use of the goods

  3. faults which materially interfere with the use of the goods

  4. faults which make them valuable for some other use


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risks; and if he does not make such disclosure, he is responsible for damage arising to the bailee directly from such faults.

A declaration under S. 34 of the Specific Relief Act can be sought by

  1. a stranger having no interest in the property

  2. a person whose legal character or a right to property is denied

  3. a person whose legal character or right to property is not denied

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 34 of the specific relief act states that any person entitled to any legal character or to any right as to any property may institute a suit against any person denying or interested to deny his title to such character or right and the court may in its discretion make therein a declaration that he is so entitled.

A contract can be specifically enforced

  1. where compensation is adequate relief for the non-performance of the contract

  2. where the contract by it’s nature is determinable

  3. where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the court cannot supervise

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under section 14 of the specific relief act, it has provided the conditions when the specific performance of contract is not enforceable: (a) when compensation in money is an adequate relief (b) when a contract runs into such minute and complex details or is dependent on personal qualifications or volition of the defendant, or otherwise from its nature is such that a court cannot enforce specific performance of its material terms (c) when a contract is in its nature determinable i.e. can be brought to an end under given conditions (d) when a contract, the performance of which involves performance of continuous nature, which the court cannot supervise

A agrees to pay B Rs. 1 Lakh if X is not made the Prime Minister after he wins in the general election for choosing members of Parliament. According to the Contract Act, this is a contingent contract under

  1. S. 35

  2. S. 34

  3. S. 33

  4. S. 32


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

This is a contingent contract according to section 32 of the Indian contract act. It states that contingent contracts to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens cannot be enforced by law unless and until that event has happened." If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void. 

A suit for possession under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within

  1. 3 years

  2. 6 years

  3. 12 years

  4. 30 years


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

It has been provided that a suit for the recovery of immovable property can be filed within 12 years when the cause of action arises.

Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act has no application when the transfer has been effected in respect of property whose

  1. vendor has no title to the property

  2. vendor has title to the property

  3. vendor has imperfect title

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 13 of the specific relief act is applicable when the transfer of property has been made by the seller who has no title or has imperfect title.

Relief of rescission is granted in cases where

  1. contract is void

  2. contract is voidable

  3. contract is both voidable and void

  4. contract is neither void nor voidable


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

It has been laid down by the legislature under section 27 of the specific relief act that any person interested in a contract may sue to have it rescinded and such rescission may be adjudged by the court where the contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff.

A businessman enters into an agreement with a Chartered Accountant to pay him fees and commission for the tax saved by so arranging the accounts as to conceal the true income of the business. Any dispute between the businessman and the Chartered Accountant on the fee and commission is to be settled by arbitration. The agreement is

  1. void

  2. voidable

  3. voidable in part

  4. void in part


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The object of the agreement is unlawful so where a businessman enters into an agreement with a Chartered Accountant to pay him fees and commission for the tax saved by so arranging the accounts as to conceal the true income of the business. Any dispute between the businessman and the Chartered Accountant on the fee and commission is to be settled by arbitration. The agreement is void. 

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