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Verbal Practice Test 5

Description: GMAT Verbal test - 5
Number of Questions: 40
Created by:
Tags: GMAT Verbal test - 5 Strengthen Others Sentence Improvement Pronoun Usage Parts of Speech Weaken
Attempted 0/39 Correct 0 Score 0

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Advocates of a large-scale space-defense research project conclude that it will represent a net benefit to civilian business. They say that since government-sponsored research will have civilian applications, civilian businesses will reap the rewards of government-developed technology. Each of the following, if true, raises a consideration arguing against the conclusion above, EXCEPT:

  1. The development of cost-efficient manufacturing techniques is of the highest priority for civilian business and would be neglected if resources go to military projects, which do not emphasis cost efficiency.

  2. Scientific and engineering talent needed by civilian business will be absorbed by the large-scale project.

  3. Many civilian businesses will receive subcontracts to provide materials and products needed by the research project.

  4. If government research money is devoted to the space project, it will not be available for specifically targeted needs of civilian business, where it could be more efficiently used.

  5. The increase in taxes or government debt needed to finance the project will severely reduce the vitality of the civilian economy.


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

In an attempt to promote the widespread use of paper rather than plastic, and thus reduce nonbiodegradable waste, the council of a small town plans to ban the sale of disposable plastic goods for which substitutes made of paper exist. The council argues that since most paper is entirely biodegradable, paper goods are environmentally preferable. Which of the following, if true, indicates that the plan to ban the sale of disposable plastic goods is ill suited to the town council's environmental goals?

  1. Although biodegradable plastic goods are now available, members of the town council believe biodegradable paper goods to be safer for the environment.

  2. The paper factory at which most of the townspeople are employed plans to increase production of biodegradable paper goods.

  3. After other towns enacted similar bans on the sale of plastic goods, the environmental benefits were not discernible for several years.

  4. Since most townspeople prefer plastic goods to paper goods in many instances, they are likely to purchase them in neighboring towns where plastic goods are available for sale.

  5. Products other than those derived from wood pulp are often used in the manufacture of paper goods that are entirely biodegradable.


Correct Option: D

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

A report on acid rain concluded, “Most forests in Canada are not being damaged by acid rain.” Critics of the report insist the conclusion be changed to, “Most forests in Canada do not show visible symptoms of damage by acid rain, such as abnormal loss of leaves, slower rates of growth, or higher mortality.” Which of the following, if true, provides the best logical justification for the critics' insistence that the report's conclusion be changed?

  1. Some forests in Canada are being damaged by acid rain.

  2. Acid rain could be causing damage for which symptoms have not yet become visible.

  3. The report does not compare acid rain damage to Canadian forests with acid rain damage to forests in other countries.

  4. All forests in Canada have received acid rain during the past fifteen years.


Correct Option: B

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Seismologists studying the earthquake that struck northern California in October 1989 are still investigating some of its mysteries: the unexpected power of the seismic waves, the upward thrust that threw one man straight into the air, and the strange electromagnetic signals detected hours before the temblor.

  1. the upward thrust that threw one man straight into the air, and the strange electromagnetic signals detected hours before the temblor

  2. the upward thrust that threw one man straight into the air, and strange electromagnetic signals were detected hours before the temblor

  3. the upward thrust threw one man straight into the air, and hours before the temblor strange electromagnetic signals were detected

  4. one man was thrown straight into the air by the upward thrust, and hours before the temblor strange electromagnetic signals were detected

  5. one man who was thrown straight into the air by the upward thrust, and strange electromagnetic signals that were detected hours before the temblor


Correct Option: A

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

The new regulations mandate that a company allows their retiring employees who would otherwise lose group health care coverage to continue the same insurance at their own expense for a specific period.

  1. that a company allows their retiring employees who would otherwise lose group health care coverage to continue

  2. companies to allow their retiring employees who would otherwise lose group health care coverage that they can continue

  3. that a company allow its retiring employees who would otherwise lose group health care coverage to continue

  4. companies allowing a retiring employee whose group health care coverage would otherwise be lost the continuation of

  5. companies to allow a retiring employee whose group health care coverage would otherwise be lost the continuation of


Correct Option: C

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year as The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were published, reveals that Twain provided financial assistance to one of the first Black students at Yale Law School.

  1. A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year as The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn were published,

  2. A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year of publication as The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn,

  3. A letter by Mark Twain, written in the same year that The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn was published,

  4. Mark Twain wrote a letter in the same year as he published The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn that

  5. Mark Twain wrote a letter in the same year of publication as The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn that


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Mechanicorp's newest product costs so little to make that it appears doubtful the company will be able to sell it without increasing the markup the company usually allows for profit: potential clients would simply not believe that something so inexpensive would really work. Yet Mechanicorp's reputation is built on fair prices incorporating only modest profit margins. The statements above, if true, most strongly support which of the following?

  1. Mechanicorp will encounter difficulties in trying to set a price for its newest product that will promote sales without threatening to compromise the company's reputation.

  2. Mechanicorp achieves large annual profits, despite small profits per unit sold, by means of a high volume of sales.

  3. Mechanicorp made a significant computational error in calculating the production costs for its newest product.

  4. Mechanicorp's newest product is intended to perform tasks that can be performed by other devices costing less to manufacture.


Correct Option: A

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Politician: Fewer people are entering the labor market now than previously. If the economy grows, the demand for motivated and educated people will far outstrip the supply. Some companies have already started to respond to this labor-market situation by finding better ways to keep their current employees. Their concern is a sure indicator that the economy is growing. Which of the following is the best criticism of the politician's reasoning?

  1. The fact that companies are making prudent preparations for a possible future development does not mean that this development is already taking place.

  2. The fact that some companies now try harder to keep their employees does not mean that they used to be indifferent to employee morale.

  3. The fact that demand will outstrip supply does not mean that there will be no supply at all.

  4. The fact that the number of new entrants into the labor market is declining does not mean that the number of new entrants is lower than it has ever been.


Correct Option: A

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Until quite recently, American presidents lived in a world in which the public and private realms of their lives were largely separate, and the press cooperated in maintaining the distinction, and Americans judged national leaders without receiving, or expecting, intimate information about them.

  1. and the press cooperated in maintaining the distinction, and

  2. where the press cooperated in maintaining the distinction, and where

  3. for the press cooperated to maintain the distinction and

  4. the press cooperated to maintain the distinction, for

  5. in which the press cooperated in maintaining the distinction, and in which


Correct Option: E

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

The European Economic Community exported just under $400 billion in goods in 1988, sixty percent more than the United States did and nearly twice as much as Japan's exports.

  1. the United States did and nearly twice as much as Japan's exports

  2. the United States' and nearly double what the Japanese exports were

  3. the United States exported and nearly twice as much as the Japanese did

  4. what the United States did and nearly twice as much as Japan's exports

  5. what the United States exported and nearly double the Japanese exports


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

A publisher is now providing university professors with the option of ordering custom textbooks for their courses. The professors can edit out those chapters of a book they are not interested in and add material of their own choosing. The widespread use of the option mentioned above is LEAST likely to contribute to fulfilling which of the following educational objectives?

  1. Coverage of material relevant to a particular student body's specific needs.

  2. Offering advanced elective courses that pursue in-depth investigation of selected topics in a field.

  3. Ensuring that students nationwide engaged in a specific course of study are uniformly exposed to a basic set of readings.

  4. Making the textbooks used in university courses more satisfactory from the individual teacher's point of view.


Correct Option: C

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

This fall two out of five households in the United States will harvest some of their own food from a vegetable garden in backyards and city lots.

  1. their own food from a vegetable garden in backyards and city lots

  2. its own food from a vegetable garden in backyards and city lots

  3. their own food from vegetable gardens in a backyard or a city lot

  4. their own food from vegetable gardens in backyards or city lots

  5. its own food from a vegetable garden in a backyard or a city lot


Correct Option: D

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

New techniques in thermal-scanning photography, a process that records radiation form surface areas, makes it possible to study the effects of calefaction, or warming, of a river in greater detail than ever before.

  1. makes it possible to study the effects of calefaction, or warning, of a river in greater detail than ever before

  2. make it possible to study, in greater detail, the effects of calefaction, or warming, of a river than ever before

  3. have made it possible to study in greater detail than ever before the effects of calefaction, or warming, of a river

  4. make possible the study of the effects of calefaction, or warming, of a river in greater detail than it ever was before

  5. has made it more possible than ever before to study in greater detail the effects of calefaction, or warming, of a river


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Under current federal law, employers are allowed to offer their employees free parking spaces as a tax-free benefit, but they can offer employees only up to $180 per year as a tax-free benefit for using mass transit. The government could significantly increase mass transit ridership by raising the limit of this benefit to meet commuters' transportation costs. The proposal above to increase mass transit ridership assumes that

  1. current mass transit systems are subject to unexpected route closings and delays

  2. using mass transit creates less air pollution per person than using a private automobile

  3. the parking spaces offered by employers as tax-free benefits can be worth as much as $2,500 per year

  4. many employees are deterred by financial considerations from using mass transit to commute to their places of employment


Correct Option: D

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Caterpillars of all species produce an identical hormone called “juvenile hormone” that maintains feeding behavior. Only when a caterpillar has grown to the right size for pupation to take place does a special enzyme halt the production of juvenile hormone. This enzyme can be synthesized and will, on being ingested by immature caterpillars, kill them by stopping them from feeding. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the view that it would not be advisable to try to eradicate agricultural pests that go through a caterpillar stage by spraying croplands with the enzyme mentioned above?

  1. Most species of caterpillar are subject to some natural predation.

  2. Many agricultural pests do not go through a caterpillar stage.

  3. Many agriculturally beneficial insects go through a caterpillar stage.

  4. Since caterpillars of different species emerge at different times, several sprayings would be necessary.


Correct Option: C

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

In the textbook publishing business, the second quarter is historically weak, because revenues are low and marketing expenses are high as companies prepare for the coming school year.

  1. low and marketing expenses are high as companies prepare

  2. low and their marketing expenses are high as they prepare

  3. low with higher marketing expenses in preparation

  4. low, while marketing expenses are higher to prepare

  5. low, while their marketing expenses are higher in preparation


Correct Option: A

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

The peaks of a mountain range, acting like rocks in a streambed, produce ripples in the air flowing over them; the resulting flow pattern, with crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are known as "standing waves."

  1. crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are

  2. crests and troughs that remain stationary although they are formed by rapidly moving air, are

  3. crests and troughs that remain stationary although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, is

  4. stationary crests and troughs although the air that forms them is moving rapidly, are

  5. stationary crests and troughs although they are formed by rapidly moving air, is


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Some manufacturers of computer software have proposed cutting costs by distributing instruction manuals for their programs on computer disk only, so that computer users can refer to them on a computer screen rather than having to deal with unwieldy printed manuals that are costly for manufacturers to produce. Which of the following, if true, provides the best reason against adopting the proposal described above?

  1. Most computer users are just as comfortable using instructions on a computer screen as they are using printed manuals.

  2. Although instructions on a computer disk can be printed out cheaply using a computer printer, such printouts are less convenient to use than instructions displayed on a computer screen.

  3. Because they are expensive and inconvenient to copy, printed instruction manuals provide one of the best deterrents against the illegal copying of software, which costs manufacturers enormous profits.

  4. Instructions supplied on a computer disk are more appropriate for business and educational programs than for computer games and other entertainment software.

  5. Instructions supplied on a computer disk can be designed to provide more extensive and more easily utilized cross-references than those provided by printed manuals.


Correct Option: C

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Federal authorities involved in the investigation have found the local witnesses are difficult to locate, reticent, and are suspicious of strangers.

  1. the local witnesses are difficult to locate, reticent, and are

  2. local witnesses to be difficult to locate, reticent, and are

  3. that local witnesses are difficult to locate, reticent, and

  4. local witnesses are difficult to locate and reticent, and they are

  5. that local witnesses are difficult to locate and reticent, and they are


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Although aspirin has been proven to eliminate moderate fever associated with some illnesses, many doctors no longer routinely recommend its use for this purpose. A moderate fever stimulates the activity of the body's disease-fighting white blood cells and also inhibits the growth of many strains of disease-causing bacteria. If the statements above are true, which of the following conclusions is most strongly supported by them?

  1. Aspirin, an effective painkiller, alleviates the pain and discomfort of many illnesses.

  2. Aspirin can prolong a patient's illness by eliminating moderate fever helpful in fighting some diseases.

  3. Aspirin inhibits the growth of white blood cells, which are necessary for fighting some illnesses.

  4. The more white blood cells a patient's body produces, the less severe the patient's illness will be.

  5. The focus of modern medicine is on inhibiting the growth of disease-causing bacteria within the body.


Correct Option: B

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

A number of linguists contend that all of the thousands of languages spoken by the world's five billion people can be traced back to a common root language.

  1. that all of the thousands of languages spoken by the world's five billion people can be traced

  2. that the world's five billion people speak thousands of languages of which all can be traced

  3. the world's five billion people speak thousands of languages which are all traceable

  4. all of the thousands of languages spoken by the world's five billion people to be traceable


Correct Option: A

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Even though the state has spent ten years and seven million dollars planning a reservoir along the Ubi River, the project will have to be abandoned as a result of the river becoming so heavily polluted.

  1. will have to be abandoned as a result of the river becoming so heavily polluted

  2. is to be abandoned on account of the heavy pollution which the river received

  3. had to be abandoned because the river had received such heavy pollution

  4. has to be abandoned because of the river and its heavy pollution

  5. must be abandoned because the river has become so heavily polluted


Correct Option: E

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

A severe drought can actually lessen the total amount of government aid that United States farmers receive as a group. The government pays farmers the amount, if any, by which the market price at which crops are actually sold falls short of a preset target price per bushel for the crops. The drought of 1983, for example, caused farm-program payments to drop by $10 billion. Given the information above, which of the following, if true, best explains why the drought of 1983 resulted in a reduction in farm-program payments?

  1. Prior to the drought of 1983, the government raised the target price for crops in order to aid farmers in reducing their debt loads.

  2. Due to the drought of 1983, United States farmers exported less food in 1983 than in the preceding year.

  3. Due to the drought of 1983, United States farmers had smaller harvests and thus received a higher market price for the 1983 crop than for the larger crop of the preceding year.

  4. Due to the drought of 1983, United States farmers planned to plant smaller crops in 1984 than they had in 1983.

  5. Despite the drought of 1983, retail prices for food did not increase significantly between 1982 and 1983.


Correct Option: C

Directions:The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Just as a writer trying to understand shtetl life might read Shalom Aleichem or Isaac Bashevis Singer, in the same way writers trying to understand Black life in the American South might well listen to records by the Mississippi Delta bluesman Charlie Patton.

  1. in the same way writers trying to understand Black life in the American South might well listen to records

  2. in the same way writers who try and understand Black life in the American South might well listen to a record

  3. so a writer trying to understand Black life in the American South might well listen to records

  4. so do writers try and understand Black life in the American South and might well listen to a record

  5. then writers trying to understand Black life in the American South could well listen to records


Correct Option: C

Directions: For this question, select the best of the answer choices given.

Some species of dolphins find their prey by echolocation; they emit clicking sounds and listen for echoes returning from distant objects in the water. Marine biologists have speculated that those same clicking sounds might have a second function: particularly loud clicks might be used by the dolphins to stun their prey at close range through sensory overload. Which of the following, if discovered to be true, would cast the most serious doubt on the correctness of the speculation described above?

  1. Dolphins that use echolocation to locate distant prey also emit frequent clicks at intermediate distances as they close in on their prey.

  2. The usefulness of echolocation as a means of locating prey depends on the clicking sounds being of a type that the prey is incapable of perceiving, regardless of volume.

  3. If dolphins stun their prey, the effect is bound to be so temporary that stunning from far away, even if possible, would be ineffective.

  4. Echolocation appears to give dolphins that use it information about the richness of a source of food as well as about its direction.

  5. The more distant a dolphin's prey, the louder the echolocation clicks must be if they are to reveal the prey's presence to the hunting dolphin.


Correct Option: B

Directions:The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Found throughout Central and South America, sloths hang from trees by long rubbery limbs and sleep fifteen hours a day, moving infrequently enough that two species of algae grow on its coat and between its toes.

  1. sloths hang from trees by long rubbery limbs and sleep fifteen hours a day, moving infrequently enough

  2. sloths hang from trees by long rubbery limbs, they sleep fifteen hours a day, and with such infrequent movements

  3. sloths use their long rubbery limbs to hang from trees, sleep fifteen hours a day, and move so infrequently

  4. the sloth hangs from trees by its long rubbery limbs, sleeping fifteen hours a day and moving so infrequently

  5. the sloth hangs from trees by its long rubbery limbs, sleeps fifteen hours a day, and it moves infrequently enough


Correct Option: D

Directions: The following question presents a sentence, part of which or all of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is best, choose the first answer; otherwise choose one of the others.

Studies show that young people with higher-than-average blood pressure and their families have a history of high blood pressure are more likely than others to develop a severe form of the condition.

  1. and their families have a history of high blood pressure

  2. whose families have a history of high blood pressure

  3. and a history of high blood pressure runs in the family

  4. whose families have a history of high blood pressure running in them

  5. with a history of high blood pressure running in their family


Correct Option: B

It can be inferred from the passage that the optic tectum

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Intuitively, intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills seem very different because perceptual-motor skills appear more primitive. Ontogenetically, perceptual-motor skills develop before intellectual skills, or at least before most intellectual skills are manifested. Phylogenetically, creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are more obviously capable of intellectual skills than are creatures "lower down".
Perceptual-motor skills also seem more closely tied to specific forms of expression. Being a chess player does not mean one can only play with pieces of a certain size, that one can only move pieces with one's right hand, and so on. By contrast, being a violinist means one can play an instrument whose size occupies a fairly narrow range and that one must play with a rather rigid assignment of functions to effectors (bowing with the right hand, and fingering with the left). The seeming narrowness of this perceptual-motor skill expression, contrasted with the seeming openness of intellectual skill expression, seems to follow from intellectual skills having symbolic outcomes and perceptual-motor skills having non-symbolic outcomes. Symbolic outcomes need not be realized in specific ways and can rely on abstract rules. Non-symbolic outcomes, by contrast, need more specific forms of realization and seem to depend on restricted associations between stimuli and responses.
Another difference between intellectual and perceptual-motor skills is that the two kinds of skill seem to be represented in different parts of the brain. For example, structures homologous to the optic tectum, a nucleus located on the dorsal surface of the midbrain, have a common function in all vertebrates--coordinating visual, auditory, and somatosensory information relevant to the control of orienting movements of the eyes, ears, and head. Similarities in structure and function between these and other brain areas associated with perceptual-motor behavior suggest that mechanisms for control of perceptual-motor skills are both highly specialized and conserved across species. In contrast, what distinguishes the human brain from the brains of other species -- even closely related ones -- is the differential growth of brain regions most strongly associated with intellectual skills, such as the association areas of the cerebral cortex.
The contention that these areas serve intellectual functions is supported by a large body of clinical and experimental literature. Together, these diverse sources of information suggest that perceptual-motor and intellectual skills depend on distinct brain circuits

 

  1. functions similarly in animal and in plants

  2. functions similarly in vertebrates and invertebrates

  3. is located in a comparable area of the brains of humans and giraffes

  4. coordinates somatosensory moment in snakes

  5. has a much more sophisticated structure than the cerebral cortex


Correct Option: C

The primary purpose of the passage is to

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993 World Trade Center bombing.
In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence.
Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection, any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity, thereby subverting the presumption of innocence.
However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no constitutional right.

 

  1. enumerate reasons why anonymous juries are unconstitutional

  2. discuss whether anonymous juries are an infringement of the sixth amendment

  3. identify a shortcoming in a scholarly approach to jurisprudence

  4. define the concept of anonymous juries and explore efforts taken over the last twenty years to increase their use


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The best answer is (2). The passage introduces the concept of anonymous juries and goes on to discuss their constitutionality.

According to the passage, all of the following have been used to attract customers to buy a one of the two brands of soft drink mentioned in the passage EXCEPT that

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Coca-Cola, which sold 10 billion cases of soft drinks in 1992, now finds itself asking, where will sales of the next 10 billion cases come from? The answer lies overseas, where income levels and appetites for Western products are at an all time high.
Often, the company that gets into a foreign market earliest dominates that country's market. Coke patriarch Robert Woodruff realized this and unleashed a brilliant ploy to make Coke the early bird in many of the major foreign markets. At the height of World War II, Woodruff proclaimed, “Wherever American boys were fighting, they'd be able to get a Coke.” By the time Pepsi tried to make its first international pitch in the 1950s, Coke had established its brand name along with a powerful distribution network.
During the last 40 years, many new markets have emerged. In order to tap into these opportunities, both coke and Pepsi have attempted to find ways to cut through the red tape that thwarts their efforts to conduct business in these new regions.
One key maneuver in the soda wars occurred in 1972, when Pepsi signed an agreement with the Soviet Union that made it the first Western product to be sold to consumers in Russia. This landmark agreement gave Pepsi the upper hand. At present, Pepsi has 23 plants in the former Soviet Union and is the leader in the soft-drink industry in Russia. It outsells Coca-Cola by a ratio of 6 to 1 and is seen there as a local brand, similar to Coke’s homegrown reputation in Japan. However, Pepsi has also encountered some obstacles. An expected increase in brand loyalty for Pepsi subsequent to its advertising blitz in Russia has not materialized, even though Pepsi produced commercials tailored to the Russian market and sponsored televised concerts.
Some analysts believe that Pepsi’s domination of the Russian market has more to do with pricing. While Pepsi sells for 250 Rubles (about 25 cents) a bottle, Coca-Cola sells for 450 Rubles. Likewise, Pepsi sells their 2 liter economy bottle for 1,300 Rubles, while Coca-Cola’s 1.5 liters is marketed at 1,800 rubles. On the other hand, Coca-Cola only made its first inroads into Russia 2 years ago. What's more, although Coca-Cola's bottle and label give it a high-class image, Russians do not perceive Coca-Cola as a premium brand in the Russian market. Consequently, it has so far been unable to capture a market share.

 

  1. offering soft drinks for a limited time at specially reduced prices

  2. sponsoring televised concerts

  3. designing a bottle and label to create a high-class image

  4. staging an advertising blitz including commercials tailored to the local market

  5. being the first country to enter a foreign market


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The best answer is (1). Answers (2), (3), (4) and (5) are all mentioned in the passage as ploys used by either Pepsi or Coca Cola to attract new customers

It can be inferred from the passage that a jurors ethnic background and religious affiliation

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993 World Trade Center bombing.
In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence.
Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection, any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity, thereby subverting the presumption of innocence.
However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no constitutional right.

 

  1. is considered by defendants not to have a significant effect on the outcome of their trials

  2. is considered by defendants to have a significant effect on the outcome of their trials

  3. would be unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial

  4. is considered by attorneys likely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial

  5. is considered by attorneys unlikely to have a significant effect on the verdict of a trial in a widely publicized case


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The best answer is (4). In paragraph three it states that many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection. The passage gives no information on what defendant think about anonymous juries.

One function of the fourth paragraph of the passage is to

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Juror anonymity was unknown to American common law and jurisprudence in the country’s first two centuries. Anonymity was first employed in federal prosecutions of organized crime in New York in the 1980's. Although anonymous juries are unusual since they are typically only empanelled in organized-crime cases, its use has spread more recently to widely publicized cases, such as the federal prosecution of police officers accused of beating Rodney King and the trial of those accused of the 1993 World Trade Center bombing.
In these cases, attorneys selected a jury from a panel of prospective jurors whose names, addresses, ethnic backgrounds and religious affiliations remained unknown to either side. This unorthodox procedure, designed to protect jurors from outside influence and the fear of retaliation, has occasionally been employed in New York federal courts since the trial of drug kingpin Leroy "Nicky" Barnes. Despite apparent benefits, critics assail anonymous juries on the grounds that they are an infringement of the sixth amendment guarantee of an impartial jury and because they present a serious and unnecessary erosion of the presumption of innocence.
Since many attorneys believe trials are frequently won or lost during jury selection, any procedure diminishing the role of counsel in the procedure necessitates close scrutiny and criticism. Opponents of anonymous juries argue that the procedure restricts meaningful voir dire, (questioning of the jury panel), and thereby undermines the defendant's sixth amendment right to an impartial jury. Critics also claim that jurors interpret their anonymity as proof of the defendant's criminal proclivity, thereby subverting the presumption of innocence.
However, consistent with due process and the sixth amendment, the trial judge may refuse to ask prospective jurors any questions not reasonably calculated to expose biases or prejudices relevant to the case. Although addresses and group affiliations may indicate significant potential for bias, attorneys do not have an unfettered right to this information in every circumstance. Denying access to these facts may indeed constrain an attorney's ability to assemble an ideal jury, but it violates no constitutional right.

 

  1. qualify the extent to which a previously introduced viewpoint may be relevant

  2. expose the flaw in a criticism put forth in a previous paragraph

  3. introduce information that supports a theory put forth in a previous paragraph

  4. support an argument in favor of a given interpretation of a situation

  5. show the chain of reasoning that led to the conclusions of a specific study


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The best answer is (2). Critics of anonymous juries base their arguments on the fact that these juries are unconstitutional. In the fourth paragraph, the author explains that while anonymous juries may not be ideal, they are not unconstitutional.

According to the passage, which of the following is mentioned as a factor in determining whether an individual with positively biased self-perception would actually be likely to perform an act of violence?

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Considerable debate exists in the self-perception literature over the impact of positively biased self-perceptions on social and psychological functioning. Positively based self-perceptions are those in which an individual has a more positive opinion of himself than objective indicators warrant. One view suggests that positive perceptual biases are characteristic of normal human thought across a variety of domains and correlate positively with good mental and psychological health. Certain researchers and clinicians have even proposed that by boosting self-concepts, symptoms of depression and levels of aggression may be reduced.
Investigators on the other side of the debate maintain that when most positive self-perceptions are compared to an objective criterion, they appear neither positively biased nor adaptive. In fact, Baumeister, Smart, and Boden suggest that positively biased self-concepts may have a ‘dark side’. They proposed that it is persons with very positive self-views who are prone to be aggressive. As a result, building up individuals' self-perceptions may serve only to increase levels of aggression rather than curb them.
According to Baumeister et al., not all individuals with positive self-perceptions are going to be interpersonally aggressive. Rather, individuals who are extremely positive in their perceptions of themselves and their functioning are proposed to be the most likely to become angry and potentially violent. The mechanism that triggers aggressive behavior by these individuals has been suggested to be negative social feedback that challenges their positive self-views. Such threats to positive self-esteem give rise to anger and hostility.
If negative social information is encountered that challenges established positive self-perceptions, Baumeister et al. propose that individuals must choose to either accept the feedback and lower their self-perceptions or reject the feedback to maintain their positive self-views. The chosen reaction then influences their subsequent affective states and behavioral expressions. By accepting the external appraisals and adjusting self-perceptions downward, dysphoric feelings and social withdrawal may result. Conversely, the rejection of the validity of the unfavorable feedback results in feelings of anger and resentment toward the source of the threat. Dodge and colleagues demonstrated that children who interpret social cues as threatening direct their anger and aggression at the peers who gave the negative evaluations. Anger stemming from the receipt of social criticism is a way to deny the legitimacy of the negative information. By directing hostile reactions toward the source of the negative feedback, the influx of disconfirming information may end. Unless individuals react against the self-esteem threat, they may be compelled to revise their self-concepts negatively, in line with the information provided. By discounting the negative social feedback, individuals can protect themselves from dysphoric feelings and maintain their positively biased self-perceptions, but they may be setting themselves up to become interpersonally aggressive.
Although positively biased self-perceptions may place individuals at risk for negative social feedback and subsequent increases in aggressive behavior, not all positive self-concepts are suggested to be harmful. The relationship between positive self-perceptions and aggression may depend on the degree of perceptual distortion (i.e., moderate vs. extreme distortion). Baumeister (1989) and Baumeister et al. (1996) proposed that an optimal range of moderate bias might exist within which mental health is encouraged. Maladjustment in psychological and social functioning is suggested to occur when the degree of bias of self-perceptions shifts from moderate to extreme levels. Extremely negative and positive perceptual bias would be related to different but equally harmful difficulties.

 

  1. The gap between what the individual thinks about himself and how good he really is.

  2. The gender of the individual.

  3. The anger level of the individual's peers.

  4. The individual's ability to ignore dysphoric feelings.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The best answer is (1). It is the distortion between how the person really is and how he perceives himself that is the most important factor, as opposed to the level of self-perception itself.

The primary purpose of the passage is to

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Coca-Cola, which sold 10 billion cases of soft drinks in 1992, now finds itself asking, where will sales of the next 10 billion cases come from? The answer lies overseas, where income levels and appetites for Western products are at an all time high.
Often, the company that gets into a foreign market earliest dominates that country's market. Coke patriarch Robert Woodruff realized this and unleashed a brilliant ploy to make Coke the early bird in many of the major foreign markets. At the height of World War II, Woodruff proclaimed, “Wherever American boys were fighting, they'd be able to get a Coke.” By the time Pepsi tried to make its first international pitch in the 1950s, Coke had established its brand name along with a powerful distribution network.
During the last 40 years, many new markets have emerged. In order to tap into these opportunities, both coke and Pepsi have attempted to find ways to cut through the red tape that thwarts their efforts to conduct business in these new regions.
One key maneuver in the soda wars occurred in 1972, when Pepsi signed an agreement with the Soviet Union that made it the first Western product to be sold to consumers in Russia. This landmark agreement gave Pepsi the upper hand. At present, Pepsi has 23 plants in the former Soviet Union and is the leader in the soft-drink industry in Russia. It outsells Coca-Cola by a ratio of 6 to 1 and is seen there as a local brand, similar to Coke’s homegrown reputation in Japan. However, Pepsi has also encountered some obstacles. An expected increase in brand loyalty for Pepsi subsequent to its advertising blitz in Russia has not materialized, even though Pepsi produced commercials tailored to the Russian market and sponsored televised concerts.
Some analysts believe that Pepsi’s domination of the Russian market has more to do with pricing. While Pepsi sells for 250 Rubles (about 25 cents) a bottle, Coca-Cola sells for 450 Rubles. Likewise, Pepsi sells their 2 liter economy bottle for 1,300 Rubles, while Coca-Cola’s 1.5 liters is marketed at 1,800 rubles. On the other hand, Coca-Cola only made its first inroads into Russia 2 years ago. What's more, although Coca-Cola's bottle and label give it a high-class image, Russians do not perceive Coca-Cola as a premium brand in the Russian market. Consequently, it has so far been unable to capture a market share.

 

  1. review the marketing history of two soft drink giants

  2. contrast two different approaches to marketing soft drinks in the global market

  3. refute the traditional explanation for Pepsi's success in the Russian soft drink market

  4. compare how well two soft drink companies have succeeded in a new foreign market


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The best answer is (4). The passage mainly compares Pepsi's success in a new foreign market, Russia, with Coca Cola's relative failure. (1) is too general. (2) is incorrect because both companies have the same general approach.

The primary purpose of this passage is to

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Considerable debate exists in the self-perception literature over the impact of positively biased self-perceptions on social and psychological functioning. Positively based self-perceptions are those in which an individual has a more positive opinion of himself than objective indicators warrant. One view suggests that positive perceptual biases are characteristic of normal human thought across a variety of domains and correlate positively with good mental and psychological health. Certain researchers and clinicians have even proposed that by boosting self-concepts, symptoms of depression and levels of aggression may be reduced.
Investigators on the other side of the debate maintain that when most positive self-perceptions are compared to an objective criterion, they appear neither positively biased nor adaptive. In fact, Baumeister, Smart, and Boden suggest that positively biased self-concepts may have a ‘dark side’. They proposed that it is persons with very positive self-views who are prone to be aggressive. As a result, building up individuals' self-perceptions may serve only to increase levels of aggression rather than curb them.
According to Baumeister et al., not all individuals with positive self-perceptions are going to be interpersonally aggressive. Rather, individuals who are extremely positive in their perceptions of themselves and their functioning are proposed to be the most likely to become angry and potentially violent. The mechanism that triggers aggressive behavior by these individuals has been suggested to be negative social feedback that challenges their positive self-views. Such threats to positive self-esteem give rise to anger and hostility.
If negative social information is encountered that challenges established positive self-perceptions, Baumeister et al. propose that individuals must choose to either accept the feedback and lower their self-perceptions or reject the feedback to maintain their positive self-views. The chosen reaction then influences their subsequent affective states and behavioral expressions. By accepting the external appraisals and adjusting self-perceptions downward, dysphoric feelings and social withdrawal may result. Conversely, the rejection of the validity of the unfavorable feedback results in feelings of anger and resentment toward the source of the threat. Dodge and colleagues demonstrated that children who interpret social cues as threatening direct their anger and aggression at the peers who gave the negative evaluations. Anger stemming from the receipt of social criticism is a way to deny the legitimacy of the negative information. By directing hostile reactions toward the source of the negative feedback, the influx of disconfirming information may end. Unless individuals react against the self-esteem threat, they may be compelled to revise their self-concepts negatively, in line with the information provided. By discounting the negative social feedback, individuals can protect themselves from dysphoric feelings and maintain their positively biased self-perceptions, but they may be setting themselves up to become interpersonally aggressive.
Although positively biased self-perceptions may place individuals at risk for negative social feedback and subsequent increases in aggressive behavior, not all positive self-concepts are suggested to be harmful. The relationship between positive self-perceptions and aggression may depend on the degree of perceptual distortion (i.e., moderate vs. extreme distortion). Baumeister (1989) and Baumeister et al. (1996) proposed that an optimal range of moderate bias might exist within which mental health is encouraged. Maladjustment in psychological and social functioning is suggested to occur when the degree of bias of self-perceptions shifts from moderate to extreme levels. Extremely negative and positive perceptual bias would be related to different but equally harmful difficulties.

 

  1. present two explanations of a phenomenon and reconcile the differences between them

  2. discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon that is not yet fully understood

  3. challenge the validity of a theory by presenting evidence that the opposite is true in some cases

  4. summarize two theories and suggest a third theory that overcomes the problems encountered in the first two

  5. present evidence that resolves a contradiction


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The best answer is (3). The passage challenges the validity of the theory that positively biased self-perception is closely correlated with normal human thought and good mental health by showing how a very high self-perception may lead to violent behavior.

The passage suggests which of the following about the Russian soft drink market?

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Coca-Cola, which sold 10 billion cases of soft drinks in 1992, now finds itself asking, where will sales of the next 10 billion cases come from? The answer lies overseas, where income levels and appetites for Western products are at an all time high.
Often, the company that gets into a foreign market earliest dominates that country's market. Coke patriarch Robert Woodruff realized this and unleashed a brilliant ploy to make Coke the early bird in many of the major foreign markets. At the height of World War II, Woodruff proclaimed, “Wherever American boys were fighting, they'd be able to get a Coke.” By the time Pepsi tried to make its first international pitch in the 1950s, Coke had established its brand name along with a powerful distribution network.
During the last 40 years, many new markets have emerged. In order to tap into these opportunities, both coke and Pepsi have attempted to find ways to cut through the red tape that thwarts their efforts to conduct business in these new regions.
One key maneuver in the soda wars occurred in 1972, when Pepsi signed an agreement with the Soviet Union that made it the first Western product to be sold to consumers in Russia. This landmark agreement gave Pepsi the upper hand. At present, Pepsi has 23 plants in the former Soviet Union and is the leader in the soft-drink industry in Russia. It outsells Coca-Cola by a ratio of 6 to 1 and is seen there as a local brand, similar to Coke’s homegrown reputation in Japan. However, Pepsi has also encountered some obstacles. An expected increase in brand loyalty for Pepsi subsequent to its advertising blitz in Russia has not materialized, even though Pepsi produced commercials tailored to the Russian market and sponsored televised concerts.
Some analysts believe that Pepsi’s domination of the Russian market has more to do with pricing. While Pepsi sells for 250 Rubles (about 25 cents) a bottle, Coca-Cola sells for 450 Rubles. Likewise, Pepsi sells their 2 liter economy bottle for 1,300 Rubles, while Coca-Cola’s 1.5 liters is marketed at 1,800 rubles. On the other hand, Coca-Cola only made its first inroads into Russia 2 years ago. What's more, although Coca-Cola's bottle and label give it a high-class image, Russians do not perceive Coca-Cola as a premium brand in the Russian market. Consequently, it has so far been unable to capture a market share.

 

  1. Price is an unimportant factor in the Russian soft drink market.

  2. Two liter economy bottles are more marketable than 1.5-liter economy bottles, especially those sporting a high-class image.

  3. One and a half liter economy bottles are more marketable than two liter economy bottles, if sold at a lower price.

  4. Russian consumers are more likely to purchase a product if the perceive it to be a local brand.

  5. The Russian soft drink market is saturated with local brands.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The best answer is (4). The passage states that one of the factors contributing to Pepsi's success in Russia is its perception by the public as a local brand.

The passage is chiefly concerned with

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Intuitively, intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills seem very different because perceptual-motor skills appear more primitive. Ontogenetically, perceptual-motor skills develop before intellectual skills, or at least before most intellectual skills are manifested. Phylogenetically, creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are more obviously capable of intellectual skills than are creatures "lower down".
Perceptual-motor skills also seem more closely tied to specific forms of expression. Being a chess player does not mean one can only play with pieces of a certain size, that one can only move pieces with one's right hand, and so on. By contrast, being a violinist means one can play an instrument whose size occupies a fairly narrow range and that one must play with a rather rigid assignment of functions to effectors (bowing with the right hand, and fingering with the left). The seeming narrowness of this perceptual-motor skill expression, contrasted with the seeming openness of intellectual skill expression, seems to follow from intellectual skills having symbolic outcomes and perceptual-motor skills having non-symbolic outcomes. Symbolic outcomes need not be realized in specific ways and can rely on abstract rules. Non-symbolic outcomes, by contrast, need more specific forms of realization and seem to depend on restricted associations between stimuli and responses.
Another difference between intellectual and perceptual-motor skills is that the two kinds of skill seem to be represented in different parts of the brain. For example, structures homologous to the optic tectum, a nucleus located on the dorsal surface of the midbrain, have a common function in all vertebrates--coordinating visual, auditory, and somatosensory information relevant to the control of orienting movements of the eyes, ears, and head. Similarities in structure and function between these and other brain areas associated with perceptual-motor behavior suggest that mechanisms for control of perceptual-motor skills are both highly specialized and conserved across species. In contrast, what distinguishes the human brain from the brains of other species -- even closely related ones -- is the differential growth of brain regions most strongly associated with intellectual skills, such as the association areas of the cerebral cortex.
The contention that these areas serve intellectual functions is supported by a large body of clinical and experimental literature. Together, these diverse sources of information suggest that perceptual-motor and intellectual skills depend on distinct brain circuits

 

  1. presenting a new theory and describing a new method to test that theory

  2. Suggesting an alternative to an outdated research method

  3. demonstrating that perceptual-motor skills are closely tied to specific forms of expression

  4. arguing that two seemingly dissimilar skills are more alike than was previously assumed

  5. presenting evidence on two dissimilar skills that resolves a contradiction


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The best answer is (4). The passage presents evidence to back the claims that intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills are more similar than was once believed.

The passage discusses the likelihood of violence stemming from which of the following types of individuals?

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Considerable debate exists in the self-perception literature over the impact of positively biased self-perceptions on social and psychological functioning. Positively based self-perceptions are those in which an individual has a more positive opinion of himself than objective indicators warrant. One view suggests that positive perceptual biases are characteristic of normal human thought across a variety of domains and correlate positively with good mental and psychological health. Certain researchers and clinicians have even proposed that by boosting self-concepts, symptoms of depression and levels of aggression may be reduced.
Investigators on the other side of the debate maintain that when most positive self-perceptions are compared to an objective criterion, they appear neither positively biased nor adaptive. In fact, Baumeister, Smart, and Boden suggest that positively biased self-concepts may have a ‘dark side’. They proposed that it is persons with very positive self-views who are prone to be aggressive. As a result, building up individuals' self-perceptions may serve only to increase levels of aggression rather than curb them.
According to Baumeister et al., not all individuals with positive self-perceptions are going to be interpersonally aggressive. Rather, individuals who are extremely positive in their perceptions of themselves and their functioning are proposed to be the most likely to become angry and potentially violent. The mechanism that triggers aggressive behavior by these individuals has been suggested to be negative social feedback that challenges their positive self-views. Such threats to positive self-esteem give rise to anger and hostility.
If negative social information is encountered that challenges established positive self-perceptions, Baumeister et al. propose that individuals must choose to either accept the feedback and lower their self-perceptions or reject the feedback to maintain their positive self-views. The chosen reaction then influences their subsequent affective states and behavioral expressions. By accepting the external appraisals and adjusting self-perceptions downward, dysphoric feelings and social withdrawal may result. Conversely, the rejection of the validity of the unfavorable feedback results in feelings of anger and resentment toward the source of the threat. Dodge and colleagues demonstrated that children who interpret social cues as threatening direct their anger and aggression at the peers who gave the negative evaluations. Anger stemming from the receipt of social criticism is a way to deny the legitimacy of the negative information. By directing hostile reactions toward the source of the negative feedback, the influx of disconfirming information may end. Unless individuals react against the self-esteem threat, they may be compelled to revise their self-concepts negatively, in line with the information provided. By discounting the negative social feedback, individuals can protect themselves from dysphoric feelings and maintain their positively biased self-perceptions, but they may be setting themselves up to become interpersonally aggressive.
Although positively biased self-perceptions may place individuals at risk for negative social feedback and subsequent increases in aggressive behavior, not all positive self-concepts are suggested to be harmful. The relationship between positive self-perceptions and aggression may depend on the degree of perceptual distortion (i.e., moderate vs. extreme distortion). Baumeister (1989) and Baumeister et al. (1996) proposed that an optimal range of moderate bias might exist within which mental health is encouraged. Maladjustment in psychological and social functioning is suggested to occur when the degree of bias of self-perceptions shifts from moderate to extreme levels. Extremely negative and positive perceptual bias would be related to different but equally harmful difficulties.

 

  1. An individual with a moderately positive self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers.

  2. An individual with a highly positive self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers.

  3. An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives positive feedback from his peers.

  4. An individual with a highly negative self-perception who receives negative feedback from his peers.

  5. An individual with a dark side who receives negative feedback from his peers.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The best answer is (2). According to the passage, when negative social information is encountered by a person with a highly elevated level of self-perception, it may lead to violence.

The author mentions the game of chess in paragraph two primarily in order to

Directions: This question is based on the following reading passage. Choose the best answer to the question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Intuitively, intellectual skills and perceptual-motor skills seem very different because perceptual-motor skills appear more primitive. Ontogenetically, perceptual-motor skills develop before intellectual skills, or at least before most intellectual skills are manifested. Phylogenetically, creatures "high on the evolutionary ladder" are more obviously capable of intellectual skills than are creatures "lower down".
Perceptual-motor skills also seem more closely tied to specific forms of expression. Being a chess player does not mean one can only play with pieces of a certain size, that one can only move pieces with one's right hand, and so on. By contrast, being a violinist means one can play an instrument whose size occupies a fairly narrow range and that one must play with a rather rigid assignment of functions to effectors (bowing with the right hand, and fingering with the left). The seeming narrowness of this perceptual-motor skill expression, contrasted with the seeming openness of intellectual skill expression, seems to follow from intellectual skills having symbolic outcomes and perceptual-motor skills having non-symbolic outcomes. Symbolic outcomes need not be realized in specific ways and can rely on abstract rules. Non-symbolic outcomes, by contrast, need more specific forms of realization and seem to depend on restricted associations between stimuli and responses.
Another difference between intellectual and perceptual-motor skills is that the two kinds of skill seem to be represented in different parts of the brain. For example, structures homologous to the optic tectum, a nucleus located on the dorsal surface of the midbrain, have a common function in all vertebrates--coordinating visual, auditory, and somatosensory information relevant to the control of orienting movements of the eyes, ears, and head. Similarities in structure and function between these and other brain areas associated with perceptual-motor behavior suggest that mechanisms for control of perceptual-motor skills are both highly specialized and conserved across species. In contrast, what distinguishes the human brain from the brains of other species -- even closely related ones -- is the differential growth of brain regions most strongly associated with intellectual skills, such as the association areas of the cerebral cortex.
The contention that these areas serve intellectual functions is supported by a large body of clinical and experimental literature. Together, these diverse sources of information suggest that perceptual-motor and intellectual skills depend on distinct brain circuits

 

  1. present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression

  2. present an example of an intellectual skill the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression

  3. present an example of a skill that is both an intellectual skill and a perceptual-motor skill, the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression

  4. present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression

  5. present an example of a perceptual-motor skill the mastery of which is closely tied to specific forms of expression


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The best answer is (1). Chess is an intellectual skill the mastery of which is not closely tied to specific forms of expression. In other words, once one has learned to play the game, one can vary the way one plays, by using one's left hand instead of one's right, for instance.

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