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Methods in Microbiology and Enzymes

Description: GATE Pure Culture TechniquesPrinciples of Microbial NutritionEnrichment Culture Techniques for Isolation of MicroorganismsMicrobial Taxonomy and DiversityEnzymesPlant SystematicsThe Reproductive SystemHormones and Their Actions
Number of Questions: 15
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Tags: GATE Pure Culture Techniques Principles of Microbial Nutrition Enrichment Culture Techniques for Isolation of Microorganisms Microbial Taxonomy and Diversity Enzymes Plant Systematics The Reproductive System Hormones and Their Actions
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Which among the following mediums are selective for Gram-negative bacteria? a. Hektoen enteric agar b. MacConkey agar c. Mannitol salt agar d. Yeast Malt Agar

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1 and 4

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 2 and 4

  5. 3 and 4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

This option is correct because Hektoen Enteric Agar is a selective and differential agar for the isolation and cultivation of the gram-negative enteric microorganisms, especially Salmonella and Shigella. MacConkey Agar is a selective and differential medium designed to isolate and differentiate enterics based on their ability to ferment lactose.

Which among the following are not an example of differential media? a. Blood agar b. Chocolate blood agar c. Eosin methylene blue agar d. Hektoen Enteric agar e. Phenylethyl alcohol agar

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 2 and 5

  4. 3 and 4

  5. 4 and 5


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Eosin methylene blue agar and hektoen enteric agar are the correct examples of a Selective and differential media.

Which among the following tests can be used to differentiate between Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris?

  1. Methyl red test

  2. Catalase test

  3. Indole test

  4. Phenylalanine deaminase test

  5. Urease test


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Proteus mirabilis and Proteus vulgaris can be differentiated by an indole test. Proteus vulgaris tests positive for the indole test while Proteus mirabilis test negative for the indole test.

Which among the following statements is/are true about TEM?

  1. The first Transmission Electron Microscope was built by Knoll and Ruska.
  2. The TEM is capable of imaging at a significantly higher resolution than the light microscopes.
  3. The electronic beam is focused by electromagnetic lenses.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 3

  4. 2 and 3

  5. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

All are true statements. The first TEM was built by Max Knoll and Ernst Ruska in 1931. The TEMs are capable of imaging at a significantly higher resolution than the light microscopes, owing to the small de Broglie wavelength of electrons. In TEM, electrons are accelerated by an electric potential and focused by the electrostatic and electromagnetic lenses onto the sample.

Which of the following tests cannot be used to differentiate the Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes?

  1. Indole test
  2. Voges-Proskauer test
  3. Cytochrome C oxidase test
  4. Catalase test
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. 3 and 4

  4. Only 4

  5. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

This option is correct because among the given tests, only catalase test can be used in the differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, while the Indole, Voges-Proskauer and Cytochrome C oxidase tests cannot be used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.

Which of the following tests determines microbial ability to perform mixed-acid fermentation?

  1. Rapid urease test

  2. Indole test

  3. Methyl red test

  4. Voges-Proskauer test

  5. Citrate test


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The methyl red test detects the production of acids formed during metabolism using mixed acid fermentation pathway using pyruvate as a substrate. The pH indicator Methyl Red is added to one tube and a red colour appears at pH's lower than 4.2, indicating a positive test (mixed acid fermentation is used). The solution remaining yellow (pH = 6.2 or above) indicates a negative test, meaning the butanediol fermentation is used.

________ and ________ are examples of enriched media.

  1. Blood agar, Hektoen Enteric Agar

  2. Eosin Methylene Blue agar, Mannitol salt agar

  3. Hektoen Enteric Agar, Mannitol salt agar

  4. Eosin Methylene Blue agar, MacConkey agar

  5. Blood agar, Chocolate agar


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Blood agar is both a differential and an enriched medium. The blood that is incorporated into this medium is an enrichment ingredient for the cultivation of fastidious organisms such as the Streptococcus species. Chocolate agar is an enriched culture media commonly used for primary isolation of Haemophilus species from clinical specimens.

Which of the following pairs of bacteria shows positive result with the Voges-Proskauer test?

  1. Enterobacter aerogenes and Klebsiella pneumoniae

  2. Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabilis

  3. Enterobacter aerogenes and Proteus mirabilis

  4. Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae

  5. Enterobacter aerogenes and Escherichia coli


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Voges–Proskauer test is used to detect acetoin in bacterial broth culture. The test is performed by adding alpha-naphthol and potassium hydroxide to the Voges-Proskauer broth which has been inoculated with bacteria. A cherry red colour indicates a positive result, while a yellow-brown color indicates a negative result. Both Enterobacter aerogenes and Klebsiella pneumoniae give positive Voges–Proskauer test.

Which of the following are examples of Gram-negative bacteria?

  1. Alcaligenes faecalis
  2. Bacillus subtilis
  3. Enterobacter aerogenes
  4. Staphylococcus aureus
  5. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  6. Streptococcus pyogenes
  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 1, 3 and 5

  3. 2, 3 and 5

  4. 2, 4 and 6

  5. 3, 4 and 5


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Alcaligenes faecalis, Enterobacter aerogenes and Klebsiella pneumoniae: All are Gram-negative bacteria.

Which of the following matches is false?

  1. Plants growing on rocks: Lithophytes

  2. Plants growing on waste land: Chersophytes

  3. Plants growing in saline soils: Psammophytes

  4. Plants growing in acidic soils: Oxylophytes

  5. Plants growing in cold soils: Psychrophytes


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Plants growing in saline soils are called halophytes. Plants growing on sand and gravel are called psammophytes.

Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?

  1. Dendrology: Study of age of plants by counting the annual rings

  2. Phycology: Study of plant development in relation to the seasons

  3. Limnology: Study of freshwater bodies and organisms living therein

  4. Pedology: Study of fruits

  5. Genecology: Study which includes the total relationship between the primitive people and the plants


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Limnology is the study of freshwater bodies and organisms living therein.

Which of the following is a set of Zn(II) containing metalloenzymes?

  1. Carboxypeptidase, Collagenase, Carbonic anhydrase and Alcohol dehydrogenase

  2. ATPase, Phosphoglucomutase, Inorganic pyrophosphatase and Collagenase

  3. Carboxypeptidase, Carbonic anhydrase, Phosphoglucomutase and Inorganic pyrophosphatase

  4. Alcohol dehydrogenase, ATPase, Phosphoglucomutase and Inorganic pyrophosphatase

  5. ATPase, Collagenase, Carbonic anhydrase and Alcohol dehydrogenase


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Carboxypeptidase, Collagenase, Carbonic anhydrase and Alcohol dehydrogenase: all are Zn(II) containing enzymes.

Which of the following statements are false regarding hormones? P. Hormones are produced by endocrine glands. Q. Hormones are always proteins. R. Hormones are secreted into blood prior to use. S. Hormones are non-antigenic.

  1. P and Q

  2. P and R

  3. P and S

  4. Q and R

  5. Q and S


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Hormones are non-antigenic. They are secreted into blod prior to use and may be amino acids, amino acid derivatives, steroid, polypeptide or proteins, amines or glycoprotein.  

Select the option which does not correctly match the endocrine gland with its hormone.

  1. Pitutary gland : Prolactin

  2. Testes : Progesterone

  3. Ovary : Estrogen

  4. Pineal gland : Melatonin

  5. Pancreas : Glucagon


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The testes of the male begin to produce testosterone at puberty in response to LH. Progesterone is released by ovary in response to high blood levels of LH.

Match column – I (organisms) with column – II (asexual reproductive structures) and select the correct option.

 
Column – I
Column – II
A. Penicillium 1. Buds
B. Hydra 2. Conidia
C. Sponge 3. Gemmules
D. Chlamydomonas 4. Zoospores
  1. A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

  2. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  3. A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

  4. A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

  5. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Asexual reproduction in penicillium takes place by conidia or conidiospores which are developed on conidiospores. When food is plentiful, hydra reproduce asexually by producing buds in the body wall, which grow to be miniature adults and simply break away when they are mature. Gemmules are internal buds found in sponges that are the result of asexual reproduction in response to a hostile environment. In chlamydomonas, asexual reproduction goes through zoospores, palmella stage, alpanospores and hypnospores.

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