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Diseases

Description: This is based on the topic namely I,nfectious Diseases and it will help the students to revise the sub topics namelt viral diseases ,fungal diseases helminthic diseases ,protozoan diseases and bacterial diseases.
Number of Questions: 60
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Tags: Helminthic and bacterial Diseases Helminthic Diseases Infectious and Non Infectious Diseases Fungal Diseases Fungal Disease Bacterial Diseases Viral Diseases
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Dracunculus medinensis is a parasite of humans, dogs, horses, cows, wolves, etc. Which among the following is a mode of transmission of dracunculus larvae?

  1. Predator-prey transmission

  2. Vector-borne transmission

  3. Transdermal transmission

  4. Transepidermal transmission

  5. Faecal-oral transmission


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Predator-prey transmission of encysted larvae within prey animals (vertebrate or invertebrate) being eaten by predators where adult worms develop and produce eggs (e.g. Dracunculus larvae in copepods ingested by humans leading to guinea worm infection, Taenia cysticerci in beef and pork being eaten by humans, Echinococcus hydatid cysts in offal being eaten by dogs).

The entire life cycle of most of the parasitic worms lasts four to six weeks. The life cycle of which among the following worms includes parasitic parthenogenetic females that are capable of hatching the eggs either internally or externally?

  1. Camallanid

  2. Rhabditid

  3. Strongyle

  4. Oxyurid

  5. Ascarid


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Rhabditid ‘threadworms’ have tiny bodies which become embedded in the host mucosa. Their life-cycle includes parasitic parthenogenetic females producing eggs which may hatch internally (leading to auto-infection) or externally (leading to transmission of infection or formation of free-living male and female adults). Super-infections by Strongyloides may cause severe haemorrhagic enteritis in humans.

Which of the following worms is the only human blood fluke predominantly found in China?

  1. T. solium

  2. T. saginata

  3. S. mansoni

  4. S. japonicum

  5. F. hepatica


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Schistosoma japonicum is the only human blood fluke that occurs in China. It is the cause of schistosomiasis japonica, a disease that still remains a significant health problem especially in the lake and marshland regions.

Which of the following diseases is spread by blood-feeding black flies?

  1. Ascariasis

  2. Dracunculiasis

  3. Elephantiasis

  4. Enterobiasis

  5. Filariasis


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Filariasis is a parasitic disease that is caused by thread-like roundworms belonging to the Filarioidea type. These are spread by blood-feeding black flies and mosquitoes.

Which among the following statements regarding the life cycle of roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides is incorrect?

  1. First appearance of eggs in stools is within 60–70 days.

  2. Some patients may have pulmonary symptoms or neurological disorders during migration of the larvae.

  3. Adult worms have a lifespan of 1–2 days.

  4. The eggs can survive potentially for 15 years.

  5. The eggs have a characteristic oval shape.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Adult worms have a life-span of 1–2 years which means that individuals may be infected all their lives as worms die and new worms are acquired.

Which of the following is a helminthic disease in which the patient becomes blind?

  1. Necatoriasis

  2. Onchocerciasis

  3. Trichinosis

  4. Trichuriasis

  5. Hymenolepis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Onchocerciasis is caused by infection from the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.

The medium-sized blood vessels of the body get inflamed in which of the following diseases?

  1. Lyme disease

  2. Yaws

  3. Kawasaki disease

  4. Relapsing fever

  5. Syphilis


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness with inflammation of small and medium sized blood vessels throughout the body, in particular, the coronary arteries (blood vessels around the heart).

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding filariasis?

  1. Lymphatic filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.

  2. Subcutaneous filarias is caused by Loa.

  3. Filariasis is usually diagnosed by finger prick test.

  4. Elephantiasis results when the parasites lodge in the nervous system of an organism.

  5. Serous cavity filariasis is caused by Mansonella perstans and Mansonella ozzardi.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Elephantiasis results when the parasites lodge in the lymphatic system.

Which of the following does NOT predispose to superficial Candida albicans infection in human beings?

  1. Pregnancy

  2. Lymphoma

  3. Diabetes mellitus

  4. Broad-spectrum antibiotics

  5. Vegetarian diet


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

There is no evidence that this leads to excess Candida infections.

Which among the following statements does not characterise helminths?

  1. Helminths can be hermaphrodites also.

  2. All helminths produce eggs for reproduction.

  3. Helminth ova have a strong shell.

  4. Helminths deposit eggs at a frequency of thrice a day.

  5. The life cycle of adult worms varies tremendously from one species to another but is generally in the range of 1 to 8 years.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

There is a large variation in the amount of eggs produced by the different worms in one event; this figure varies in the range of 3,000 to 700,000.

Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is false?

  1.  It only affects the elderly.

  2. It affects the peri-arteriolar connective tissues of the body.

  3. It is believed to be caused by antibody cross-reactivity.

  4. It shows no evidence of genetic susceptibility.

  5. The recurrence of rheumatic fever is relatively common in the absence of maintenance of low dose antibiotics.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Rheumatic fever usually affects young children and adolescents.

Epstein-Barr virus is NOT implicated in

  1. chronic lymphatic leukaemia

  2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma

  3. Burkitt's lymphoma

  4. infectious mononucleosis

  5. post-transplantation lymphoproliferative syndrome


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

This is a relatively benign form of leukaemia in elderly people.

Diabetic patients and malnourished children are most susceptible to which among the following fungal diseases?

  1. Candidiasis

  2. Cryptococcosis

  3. Zygomycosis

  4. Aspergillosis

  5. Hyalohyphomycosis


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Zygomycosis in the debilitated patient is the most acute and fulminate fungal infection known. The disease typically involves the rhino-facial-cranial area, lungs, gastrointestinal tract and skin. It is often associated with acidosis, diabetes, malnourished children, severely burned patients and other diseases such as leukemia and lymphoma.

Mrs. Shukla is an immunodeficient patient. Which among the following pathogens can infect her most?

  1. Aspergillus

  2. Mucor

  3. Cryptococcus

  4. Candida

  5. Malassezia furfur


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Patients with primary immunodeficiencies are susceptible to Aspergillus species infections particularly when cell-mediated immunity is compromised.

Central auditory processing disorder (CAPD) is a complex problem affecting about 10% of school-aged children. These patients are more prone to be infected by which among the following fungi?

  1. Candida norvegensis

  2. Candida guilliermondii

  3. Candida parapsilosis

  4. Candida lusitaniae

  5. Candida tropicalis


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Candida norvegensis is a very rare clinical isolate that has been reported as a causative agent of peritonitis and disseminated candidiasis in a patient on CAPD.

Which among the following is a causative agent of swamp cancer, especially in horses?

  1. Conidiobolus coronatus

  2. Basidiobolus ranarum

  3. Apophysomyces elegans

  4. Pythium insidiosum

  5. Shizophyllum


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Pythium insidiosum is the causative agent of swamp cancer, especially in horses, mainly in wet tropical environments. Infections are characterised by tumour-like masses which develop mostly on the legs.

Mycotic abortion is common only in cattle. The causative agent of bovine mycotic abortion is

  1. Syncephalastrum racemosum

  2. Saksenaea vasiformis

  3. Lichtheimia corymbifera

  4. Mortierella wolfii

  5. Cunninghamella bertholletiae


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Mortierella wolfii is an important casual agent of bovine mycotic abortion, pneumonia and systemic mycosis. It has also been isolated from soil, rotten silage, hay and coal spoil tips.

The immunosuppressed patients are more susceptible to the infection of

  1. Curvularia

  2. Phaeoannellomyces werneckii

  3. Scedosporium prolificans

  4. Sporothrix schenckii

  5. Wangiella dermatitidis


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

It is a rare cause of subcutaneous, sinusitis, endocarditis, peritonitis and disseminated infection in immunosuppressed patients.

Keratin is a fibrous scleroprotein that occurs in the outer layer of the skin and in horny tissues such as hair, feathers, nails and hooves. Which among the following diseases is caused by a fungus which has the ability to utilise keratin as a nutrient source for its growth?

  1. Paronychia

  2. Pityriasis folliculitis

  3. Dermatophytosis

  4. Chronic candidal onychomycosis

  5. Candidiasis


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Dermatophytosis of the scalp, glabrous skin and nails is caused by dermatophytes which have the ability to utilise keratin as a nutrient source. No living tissue is invaded the keratinised stratum corneum is simply colonised.

Acne is a common skin disease that causes pimples. Acne and its variants are the types of which of the following infections?

  1. Erysipelas

  2. Tropical pyomyositis

  3. Impetigo

  4. Cellulitis

  5. Folliculitis


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Folliculitis is the name given to a group of skin conditions in which there are inflamed hair follicles. The result is a tender red spot, often with a surface pustule. Acne and its variants are also types of folliculitis.

Which among the following fungi is best known as an insect parasite?

  1. Fusarium

  2. Beauveria bassiana

  3. Aspergillus fumigatus

  4. Saksenaea vasiformis

  5. Rhizopus oryzae


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

This fungi is usually isolated as a saprophytic contaminant. World-wide, it is known as an insect parasite. Sympodial development of single-celled conidia on a narrow geniculate or zig-zag rachis emanating from a flask-shaped conidiophore.

Which among the following statements regarding Strongyloididae worms is false?

  1. They are unique amongst nematodes, being capable of both parasitic and free-living reproductive cycles.

  2. Transmission of the worm involves a geo-helminth phase.

  3. Thread-worm infections occur in a range of mammalian species throughout the world.

  4. Parasitic worms are all parthenogenetic males.

  5. Free-living male and female worms have a rhabditiform pharynx and are smaller in size.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Parasitic worms are all parthenogenetic females, measuring from 2-3mm in length and characterised by the presence of an extremely long filariform pharynx (one third of body length) and a blunt pointed tail.

Which of the following statements does not characterise onchocerciasis?

  1. The parasite worm is spread by the bite of a black fly.

  2. A vaccine against this disease does not exist.

  3. Onchocerciasis is also known as river blindness.

  4. Adult worms remain in subcutaneous nodules, limiting access to the host's immune system.

  5. The microfilaria migrate to the skin during the night.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

The microfilaria migrate to the skin during the day.

After a complete medical checkup, the doctor confirmed to a couple that their child was suffering from CNS zygomycosis which is a deadly fungal disesae. The causative agent of CNS zygomycosis is

  1. Rhizomucor pusillus

  2. Mucor

  3. Cunninghamella bertholletiae

  4. Absidia corymbifera

  5. Conidiobolus coronatus


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

It is a common human pathogen causing pulmonary, rhinocerebral, disseminated, CNS zygomycosis. It is a small pyriform shaped sporangia with a characteristic conical shaped columellae and pronounced apophysis.

Ankita and her sister are HIV-infected. Which among the following fungi are recognised from the oral cavity of HIV-infected patients?

  1. Candida kefyr

  2. Candida glabrata

  3. Candida famata

  4. Candida dubliniensis

  5. Candida albicans


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

It is one of the most common yeast species to be found on the body surface and is often isolated as an incidental finding from skin and urine.

After a thorough check-up, it is confirmed that a patient is suffering from a fungal disease which is characterised by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction. Which among the following diseases is the patient suffering from?

  1. Chromoblastomycosis

  2. Cutaneous mycoses

  3. Sporotrichosis

  4. Pityriasis

  5. Mycetoma


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

It is a mycotic infection of humans and animals caused by a number of different fungi and actinomycetes characterised by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction. The disease results from the traumatic implantation of the aetiologic agent and usually involves the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue.

It is well-known that the people doing regular back-breaking exercises may be at increased risk of various respiratory tract infections. The stress induced by extensive exercise can increase susceptibility to infection by

  1. increasing the synthesis of adrenaline

  2. raising the plasma levels of cortisol

  3. increasing the lymph flow

  4. damaging the mast cells

  5. increasing the respiratory rate


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Cortisol depresses a range of immune responses.

The blood samples of an old man showed levels of aflatoxins, which is a potent liver carcinogen. Which among the following fungi is associated with the production of aflatoxins?

  1. Aspergillus sojae

  2. Aspergillus oryzae

  3. Aspergillus parasiticus

  4. Aspergillus versicolor

  5. Aspergillus ustus


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Aspergillus parasiticus is a mold known to produce aflatoxins which is a potent liver carcinogen. It is closely related to Aspergillus flavus.

Protection against various microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, etc. inside the living cells is provided by which among the following components of the immune system?

  1. T-cells

  2. Antibodies

  3. C3b

  4. C1q

  5. Membrane-attack complex


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

T-lymphocytes are specialised for recognising peptides derived from intracellular infectious agents which are exhibited on the surface of an infected cell together with MHC class I & II molecules.

Which of the following microorganisms does not use antigenic variation as a major means of evading host defence?

  1. Influenza A virus

  2. Borrelia recurrentis

  3. HIV

  4. Trypanosome

  5. Streptococcus pneumoniae


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

There are at least 93 serotypes in the world. Though there are 23 prevalent serotypes that cause disease in different parts of the world, but no switching of the bacterium between serotypes is there. Infections with these organisms are common and often infect those with antibody, or innate or combined deficiencies.

Which among the following is required for transferring specific immunity to M. tuberculosis in mice?

  1. B-cells

  2. T-cells

  3. Macrophages

  4. Neutrophils

  5. IgG


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

T-cells are important for immunity to M. tuberculosis through the provision of Th1 cytokines such as IFN-gamma to activate macrophages containing the bacilli and perhaps also the participation of cytotoxic T-cells. The latter may kill macrophages which cannot be rescued by cytokines thereby releasing the bacteria to be taken up by fresh young macrophages which can be activated to become killers.

HIV is one of the most deadly lentivirus that is capable of destructing neutrophil chemotaxis, recruitment and cell structure. Which among the following mediates the neutrophil chemotaxis?

  1. C5b

  2. IL-8

  3. C3a

  4. CCL2

  5. E-selectin


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

IL-8 produced by endothelial cells in the inflammatory response is a powerful chemotactic agent for neutrophils.

Bacterial protein toxins are the most powerful human poisons known and retain high activity at very high dilutions. After invading the human body, these toxins get neutralised by which of the following components of immune system?

  1. Complement

  2. Antibodies

  3. Toxoids

  4. PGE2

  5. Proteolytic enzymes


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Antibodies may block the binding to target cell and would increase the rate of removal of toxin from the circulation by immune complex formation.

Bacillus anthracis and Escherichia coli are the two most prominent extracellular bacterial pathogens. Extracellular bacteria try to avoid killing by

  1. activating neutrophils

  2. accelerating complement activation

  3. synthesising capsules

  4. deviating complement deposition to the cell membrane

  5. limiting variation in their antigens


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Capsules do not adhere readily to phagocytic cells and may cover carbohydrate molecules which could be recognised by phagocyte receptors.

Which among the following is a bacterial inflammation of breast tissue in human beings?

  1. Gastroenteritis

  2. Mastitis

  3. Sepsis

  4. Meningitis

  5. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Mastitis is the inflammation of breast tissue. S. aureus is the most common etiological organism responsible, but S. epidermidis and streptococci are occasionally isolated as well. Mastitis can be classified as milk stasis, non-infectious or infectious inflammation and abscess.

Streptococcus pyogenes owes its major success as a pathogen to its ability to colonise and rapidly multiply and spread in its host while evading phagocytosis and confusing the immune system. Which among the following statements is correct regarding the pyrogenic streptococcal exotoxins SPE, A, B and C?

  1. They are M proteins.

  2. They cause post-streptococcal autoimmune disease.

  3. They produce high titers of anti-streptolysin O.

  4. They have hyaluronidase activity.

  5. They are superantigens.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

The superantigens combine with the framework regions of certain TCR V beta families irrespective of their complementarity determining regions.

Antigenic shift is seen only with influenza A viruses. It results usually from the replacement of the hemagglutinin and generally involves

  1. single point mutation

  2. random point mutations

  3. interchanging of large segments of the viral genome with other viruses

  4. rearrangement of the viral structural architecture

  5. regression to an earlier variant


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The ability to interchange large segments of the genome with a viral reservoir in other animal species is the basis of antigenic shift leading to radical change in antigen, particularly crucial antigens giving protective immunity such as the viral hemagglutinin.

Many years ago, leprosy was considered a mysterious disease associated with some type of curse, and people suffering from leprosy were isolated and ostracised. Lepromatous leprosy is characterised by

  1. poor T-cell responses

  2. good cell-mediated immunity

  3. good lepromin dermal response

  4. poor B-cell responses

  5. poor phagocytic ability


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The poor T-cell responses specific for leprosy bacillus prevent the host from mounting a killing response and the bacilli grow profusely.

The HIV nef protein affects antigen presentation by

  1. causing MHC class I endocytosis

  2. containing glycine-alanine repeats which inhibit proteasome-mediated processing of the virus

  3. preventing peptide binding to TAP

  4. preventing peptide transport through the TAP pore

  5. competing for peptide binding to the MHC class I heavy chain


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

It thereby prevents effective presentation of antigen peptides to the T-cell receptor.

Which among the following options characterises interferons?

  1. They opsonise viruses.

  2. They neutralise viruses.

  3. They play a major role in recovery from viral infections.

  4. They prevent viral entry into cells.

  5. They protect against reinfection with virus.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Interferon inhibits the intracellular replication of viruses.

Type 1 T helper (Th1) cells produce interferon-gamma, interleukin (IL)-2, and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-beta, which activate macrophages at the time of infections. Th1 cells are of major importance in defence against which of the following protozoans?

  1. Trypanosoma brucei

  2. Leishmania donovani

  3. Malarial merozoites

  4. Malarial sporozoites

  5. Trichinella spiralis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Th1 cells produce cytokines which activate the killing macrophages. Where Th2 cells predominate, antibodies are produced and the individual responds poorly to the infection.

Which among the following statements regarding the cytotoxic T-cells of the activated defense mechanism is correct?

  1. They are usually CD4.

  2. They recognise native viral antigen.

  3. They are more readily produced by killed rather than live virus.

  4. They kill viruses directly.

  5. They restrict viral replication.


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

The killing early on, in the infection of a virally-infected cell prevents the virus from utilising that cell for replication.

Which of the following invades the red blood cells of human beings in the life cycle of a malarial parasite?

  1. Sporozoite

  2. Ookinete

  3. Oocyst

  4. Merozoite

  5. Gametocytes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Merozoite is a form of the malaria parasite that invades red blood cells.

Prions are highly infectious particles leading to various diseases in human beings. Prions are

  1. relatively sensitive to protease digestion

  2. associated with CGD

  3. present in follicular dendritic cells in individuals with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

  4. normally eliminated by B-cells

  5. destroyed by macrophages


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

FDCs naturally express high levels of the normal prion protein which then becomes abnormal following exposure to the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE) agent.

The membrane attack complex is composed of a complex of four complement proteins (C5b, C6, C7 and C8) that bind to the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Individuals lacking C8 or C9 are more prone to get infected from

  1. Haemophilus influenzae

  2. Bacillus anthrax

  3. Vibrio cholerae

  4. Neisseria

  5. Listeria monocytogenes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The membrane attack complex containing C8 and C9 is important for destroying the Neisseria bacterium.

Which among the following statements regarding leprosy is false?

  1. Leprosy is an infectious skin and nerve disease.

  2. Children are more likely to get leprosy than adults.

  3. Tuberculoid leprosy is less contagious than other forms.

  4. Leprosy is caused by a fast-growing type of bacteria.

  5. Leprosy has a very long incubation period.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Leprosy is caused by a slow-growing type of bacteria called Mycobacterium leprae (M. leprae). Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease, after the scientist who discovered M. leprae in 1873.

Which of the following changes in the cell causes inflammation, which is a defensive reaction initiated by infection or tissue injury?

  1. Upregulation of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and leukocytes

  2. Chemotaxis

  3. IL-8 release

  4. Phagocytosis

  5. Bacterial killing


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Up-regulation of P-selectin leads to binding to sialyl Lewisx on the neutrophil and causes rolling along the endothelium. Upregulation of PAF leads to firm binding to the receptor on the neutrophil and the cell is then subject to chemotactic attraction to pass through the endothelial cells.

Which among the following mechanisms is not used by trypanosomes to evade the host immune response?

  1. Pre-empting complement defences

  2. Releasing decoy proteins

  3. Varying their surface antigens

  4. Escaping from the phagosome

  5. Completely resisting phagocytosis


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Trypanosomes are susceptible to phagocytosis, although some of the evasion mechanisms they employ will limit the ability of the phagocyte to initially bind the parasite and to subsequently kill the engulfed organism.

The mucosal surfaces represent the largest area of exposure of the body to external pathogens like bacteria, viruses, protozoans, etc. Which among the following types of immunoglobulins initially protects the mucosal surfaces of the body?

  1. IgG

  2. IgM

  3. IgE

  4. Secretory IgA

  5. IgD


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

IgA with secretory piece is dimeric and is the main Ig which prevents adherence of bacteria to the mucosal surface and opsonizes bacteria for adherence to macrophages with Fc alpha receptors.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis cells growing in macrophages are filamentous and deficient in FtsZ rings, and are killed by which of the following constituents of defense mechanism?

  1. Complement

  2. Reactive oxygen and nitrogen intermediates

  3. Antibodies

  4. Cytotoxic T-cells

  5. Cytokines released from Th1 cells


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

These mechanisms come into play when the macrophage is activated. Other mechanisms, e.g. peptide defensins and cationic proteins may also contribute to killing.

The extracellular bacteria are found outside the living cells and can be detected quite easily by the immune system because T-cells can come in contact with them. Extracellular bacteria are killed by which of the following phenomena occurring between the host and the bacteria?

  1. Secreting exotoxins

  2. Impeding inflammatory reactions

  3. Phagocytosis and complement

  4. Toxin neutralisation

  5. C-reactive protein


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Major killing of extracellular bacteria is through phagocytosis and intracellular killing. Complement aids opsonisation of bacteria to facilitate phagocytosis but may also be responsible for the bactericidal action of fresh serum containing antibody on Gram-negative bacteria.

Which among the following statements regarding baculoviruses is incorrect?

  1. Baculoviruses are lytic viruses, primarily pathogenic for insects.

  2. Non-genetically modified wild type baculoviruses are not capable of infecting vertebrate cells.

  3. Baculovirus is insensitive to human complement.

  4. The budded form of the virus routinely used in research is non-infectious for the insect host.

  5. Polyhedrin negative baculovirus expression system is susceptible to desiccation and UV light.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Transmission of baculovirus is through direct contact with the infective virus/vector. Baculovirus is highly sensitive to human complement and therefore, should an exposure occur, rapid inactivation of the virus is anticipated.

Various skin tests of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps indicate a deficiency of

  1. NK cells

  2. T-cells

  3. B-cells

  4. Phagocytosis

  5. Opsonisation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

These are delayed type hypersensitivity skin tests which are mediated by T-cells.

Which among the following statements regarding M. tuberculosis is false?

  1. M. tuberculosis is a genetically diverse bacterium.

  2. Humans are the only known reservoirs of M. tuberculosis.

  3. It does not retain any bacteriological stain.

  4. The rate of division of M. tuberculosis is extremely fast.

  5. Its cell wall is rich in lipids.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

M. tuberculosis divides every 15–20 hours, which is extremely slow compared to other bacteria, which tend to have division times measured in minutes (Escherichia coli can divide roughly every 20 minutes).

Who among the following is credited with first describing the bacterium N. gonorrhoea?

  1. Ernst Haeckel

  2. Rudolf Virchow

  3. Boeck

  4. Armauer Hansen

  5. Albert Neisser


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

N. gonorrhoea was first described by Albert Neisser in 1879.

Which of the following fungi is a major producer of carcinogenic aflatoxins in crops worldwide?

  1. A. fumigatus

  2. A. nidulans

  3. A. flavus

  4. A. lentulus

  5. A. terreus


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A. flavus is the major producer of carcinogenic aflatoxins in crops worldwide. It is also an opportunistic human and animal pathogen, causing aspergillosis in immunocompromised individuals.

Which among the following statements does not characterise Escherichia coli (E. coli)?

  1. E. coli and other facultative anaerobes constitute about 0.1% of gut flora.

  2. E. coli is a gram-negative, facultatively aerobic, rod-shaped bacterium.

  3. E. coli is a very versatile host for the production of heterologous proteins.

  4. E. coli was one of the first organisms to have its genome sequenced.

  5. E. coli normally colonises an infant's gastrointestinal tract within 40 hours of birth.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium of the genus Escherichia that is commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms (endotherms).

Which of the following statements regarding the life cycle of malarial parasite is incorrect?

  1. The sporozoites travel to the liver and invade liver cells.

  2. Over 5-16 days, the sporozoites grow, divide and produce tens of thousands of merozoites.

  3. The merozoites exit the liver cells and re-enter the bloodstream.

  4. Some of the merozoite-infected blood cells leave the cycle of sexual multiplication.

  5. When a mosquito bites an infected human, it ingests the gametocytes.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Some of the merozoite-infected blood cells leave the cycle of asexual multiplication. Instead of replicating, the merozoites in these cells develop into sexual forms of the parasite, called male and female gametocytes that circulate in the bloodstream.

Immune complex–induced nephrotic syndrome is a feature of which of the following diseases?

  1. Trypanosomiasis

  2. Quartan malaria

  3. Schistosomiasis

  4. Leishmaniasis

  5. Chagas' disease


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Immunologically-mediated tissue damaging reactions often occur in persistent parasitic infections, as in this example.

An increased total IgE level indicates that it is likely that a person has one or more allergies. High IgE levels are found in infections with which of the following protozoans?

  1. Trypanosoma cruzi

  2. Trypanosoma rhodesiense

  3. Plasmodium falciparum

  4. Trichinella spiralis

  5. Leishmania tropica


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Parasites like Trichinella frequently increase the IgE levels, usually polyclonally. This tends to inhibit the protective effect of IgE by diluting out the specific IgE on the mast cell. Inflammation induced by mast cell degranulation leads to influx of IgG which causes damage to the parasite.

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