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Harmful Bacteria and Viruses (Class XII)

Description: Clostridium perfringens Pseudomonas aeruginosa Salmonella and Shigella species
Number of Questions: 20
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Tags: Clostridium perfringens Pseudomonas aeruginosa Salmonella and Shigella species Viral Diseases Bacterial Diseases
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Cholera bacillus is a bacterial species that produces a soluble exotoxin and causes cholera in humans. Who among the following scientists is credited with the first production of live, but non-virulent forms of chicken cholera bacillus?

  1. Sabin

  2. Montague

  3. Jenner

  4. Salk

  5. Pasteur


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

A culture of chicken cholera bacillus accidentally left on bench during warm summer months lost much of its ability to cause disease, but could protect birds from the effects of fresh virulent bacillus. Pasteur also obtained similar results for anthrax and rabies.

Which of the following does not protect body surface from bacteria?

  1. Gut microflora

  2. Salivary amylase

  3. Gastric acid

  4. Mucus

  5. Skin


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

This enzyme splits starch and is of importance for digestion, but not for protection.

Baculovirus vectors can be produced in cell lines derived from which of the following?

  1. Moth

  2. Green monkey kidney

  3. Tobacco

  4. Chinese hamster ovary

  5. Chicken bursa


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Baculovirus vectors in moth cell lines produce large amounts of glycosylated recombinant protein. The baculovirus is a natural infectious agent of insect cells.

Specific immunity to M. tuberculosis in human beings is provided by

  1. IgG

  2. Neutrophils

  3. Macrophages

  4. T-cells

  5. B-cells


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

T-cells are important for immunity to M. tuberculosis through the provision of Th1 cytokines.

IgE levels are high in infections caused by

  1. Leishmania tropica

  2. Plasmodium falciparum

  3. Trypanosoma rhodesiense

  4. Trypanosoma cruzi

  5. Trichinella spiralis


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Parasites like Trichinella frequently increase the IgE levels, usually polyclonally. This tends to inhibit the protective effect of IgE by diluting out the specific IgE on the mast cell. Inflammation induced by mast cell degranulation leads to influx of IgG, which causes damage to the parasite.

Which of the following bacteria is able to escape from phagocytic vacuoles in the cells?

  1. Neisseria

  2. Listeria monocytogenes

  3. Vibrio cholerae

  4. Haemophilus influenzae

  5. Bacillus anthracis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Listeria monocytogenes is able to escape from phagocytic vacuoles and survive in the cytoplasm of phagocytic cells.

Which among the following blocks the tyrosine kinase signaling in the host cell?

  1. Vpu

  2. LMP-2A

  3. E2

  4. NSP2

  5. Gp41


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

LMP-2A is a transmembrane protein that acts to block tyrosine kinase signaling. It inhibits activation of the viral lytic cycle.

An old lady is suffering from epidermodysplasia verruciformis. She is most likely to be infected by

  1. herpesvirus

  2. adenovirus

  3. simian virus 40

  4. polyomavirus

  5. papillomavirus


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Papillomaviruses have a genome size about 8 kilobases. They cause warts which are frequently benign but can convert to malignant carcinomas. This often occurs in people suffering from with epidermodysplasia verruciformis.

Which of the following do(es) NOT predispose to superficial Staphylococcus infection?

  1. Pregnancy

  2. Lymphoma

  3. Diabetes mellitus

  4. Vegetarian diet

  5. Broad-spectrum antibiotics


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

There is no evidence that vegetarian diet leads to excess Staphylococcus infections or to poor nutrition.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus and atttacks the immune system of the body. It interacts with which of the following cell surface molecules to gain entry into the cells of the immune system?

  1. CD4

  2. CD19

  3. CD40 ligand

  4. CD8

  5. CD25


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

This is a major portal of entry, though not the only one. The chemokine receptors CXCR4 and CCR5 are also major portals of entry and reduce the CD4 positive helper T-cell numbers dramatically.

Which of the following statements characterizes Gram +ve bacteria?

  1. Gram +ve bacteria can be lysed by complement.

  2. They have a particularly thick outer carbohydrate capsule.

  3. Gram +ve bacteria are stained by crystal violet.

  4. They contain endotoxin.

  5. Basal body of the flagellum contains four rings.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Staining with crystal violet is the means by which bacteria have been classified historically. This primitive but quick (and messy when done by hand!) classification has been of practical use however, and so has survived.

Superantigens are toxins produced by many pathogenic bacteria and viruses. Which of the following statements regarding superantigens is FALSE?

  1. Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is an example of superantigen associated disease.

  2. Superantigen associated diseases are characterized by markedly elevated circulating levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

  3. In humans, a superantigen reacts with approximately 1 in 50 T-cells.

  4. Superantigens activate large numbers of B-cells.

  5. The first bacterial SAg was isolated by Bergdoll.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Superantigens simultaneously activate large numbers of T-cells carrying a particular T-cell receptor Vβ gene, by binding at a site distinct from the antigen-binding groove. Since there are 50 different Vβ genes in humans, a superantigen will react with approximately 1 : 50 T-cells in contrast to a conventional peptide antigen that will react with 1 : 104 to 1 : 108 T-cells. They do not react with the BCR.

Mycobacterium is a genus characterized by various pathogenic bacteria. Granuloma formation in mycobacterial infection does NOT include which of the following processes?

  1. Engulfment of the mycobacteria by the macrophages

  2. Replication of the mycobacteria within the phagosomes

  3. Production of IL-12 to drive Th1 differentiation of immature CD4 cells

  4. TNF-α production for activation of macrophages to epithelioid forms

  5. Production of IL-4


Correct Option: E
Explanation:

Production of IL-4 by Th2 cells is not a part of granuloma formation, which involves Th1 activation rather than Th2 activation.

Cytomegalovirus or CMV is a common virus that infects people of all ages around the world. Which of the following statements about CMV is FALSE?

  1. Cytomegalovirus is a member of the retroviral group of viruses.

  2. Herpesviruses are DNA viruses.

  3. CMV can down regulate the host response.

  4. CMV is named for the large inclusion bodies in the nucleus of the infected cell.

  5. Primary CMV infection can be mild and similar to glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis).


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

CMV is an example of herpesviruses. These are all large DNA viruses of which CMV is the largest; which is also known as human herpesvirus-5 (HHV-5).

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacterial cause of pneumonia in all age groups except newborn infants. Recurrent or severe bacterial pneumonia does NOT usually complicate which of the following conditions in human beings?

  1. Immunosuppression following renal transplantation

  2. Splenectomy

  3. Secondary immunodeficiency

  4. Primary antibody deficiencies

  5. Complement C3 deficiency


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The anti T-cell immunosuppression used to prevent graft rejection increases the risk of fungal and viral infections. Primary cytomegalovirus infection in a renal transplant recipient; bacterial pneumonia is a particular risk when the patient is neutropenic after bone marrow transplantation.

When an antigen enters the body, the immune system produces antibodies against it. Poor skin tests to a range of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps indicate a deficiency of

  1. NK cells

  2. T-cells

  3. B-cells

  4. Phagocytosis

  5. Opsonization


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

These are delayed type hypersensitivity skin tests which are mediated by T-cells.

An evaluation of efficacy of a new vaccine against M. tuberculosis is best done using which of the following markers?

  1. Clinical evaluation of infection incidence in the field post-completion of an immunization programme of susceptible individuals

  2. In vivo IgM antibody responses

  3. In vivo IgG responses

  4. Quantification of Ag-specific T-cells by ELISPOT

  5. Quantification of Ag-specific T-cells by flow cytometric-based intracellular cytokine staining assay


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Clinical evaluation of infection incidence in the field post-completion of an immunization programme of susceptible individuals provides the most important evidence of efficacy. Such data may take 2 or 3 years to be collected, depending on the periodicity of infection with the organism. Long term immunity data is collected over 25 years to check that the provoked immunity is life-long (especially in these days of longer life spans).

Which of the following statements about viruses is TRUE?

  1. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is an example of a virus that undergoes antigenic variation.

  2. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is an example of a virus that can inhibit antigen processing.

  3. HHV 8 is an example of a virus that can infect lymphocytes.

  4. VZV is an example of a virus that can become latent.

  5. Rotavirus commonly infects epithelia to cause warts.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

VZV lies dormant in sensory nerve ganglia (near the base of the nerves) for decades and re-emerges to cause shingles.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents a complex knot for scientists to unravel. Which of the following is a coreceptor for HIV?

  1. CD8

  2. CD54

  3. CR5

  4. CXCR4

  5. RANTES


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

CXCR4 is a chemokine receptor which HIV utilizes as a coreceptor for entry into naive CD4+ T-cells and mature dendritic cells. Another chemokine receptor, CCR5, is used particularly for entry of HIV into immature dendritic cells, macrophages and activated effector or memory CD4+ T-cells.

The type of bacterial toxins released depends on the species of invading bacteria. These toxins are generally neutralized by which of the following?

  1. Complement

  2. Antibody

  3. Toxoids

  4. PGE2

  5. Proteolytic enzymes


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Antibody may block the binding to target cell and would increase the rate of removal of toxin from the circulation by immune complex formation.

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