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CSAT Paper - 1 (Mock test - 9)

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Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): Though lignite is supposed to be of poor quality, Indian lignite is considered to be better in quality. Reason (R): The Indian lignite has less ash content than coal and is consistent in quality.

  1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation for assertion

  2. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation for assertion

  3. if assertion is true but reason is false

  4. if assertion is false but reason is true


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Both the given statements are correct and reason is the correct explanation for assertion. Among the four varieties of coal - Anthracite, bituminous, lignite and peat - the first two varieties are considered superior in quality, while lignite and peat are considered inferior. But, Indian lignite is considered to be better in quality owing to its less ash content.

Consider the following measures adopted by the government for economic reforms (1990 - 2007): (a) Industrial licenses for the expansion of manufacturing base were abolished. (b) 100% foreign ownership was permitted. (c) Excise duty was increased on imports to discourage them. (d) VAT was imposed/levied on domestic products. (e) Price control was eased in many cases.

Which of the above is/are not in conformity?

  1. Only (a)

  2. Only (b) and (c)

  3. Only (c)

  4. Only (d) and (e)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Excise duty was stashed on imports apart from various other measures adopted viz, membership of WTO, foreign technical agreements, etc.

Fiscal Deficit is equal to

  1. Current Expenditure - Current Income

  2. Total Budget Expenditure (-) (Revenue Receipt + Capital Receipts Excluding Borrowing)

  3. Total Expenditure - Total Income

  4. (Current Expenditure + Capital Expenditure) - Current Income


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Total Budget Expenditure (-) (Revenue Receipt + Capital Receipts Excluding Borrowing)

Which of the following items is/are not included in a country's balance of payments?

  1. Import and export duties

  2. Shipping services

  3. Interest received from abroad

  4. Tourists' expenditure


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Import and export duties are not included in a country's balance of payments. Balance of payments accounts are an accounting record of all monetary transactions between a country and the rest of the world. These transactions include payments for the country's exports and imports of goods, services, financial capital, and financial transfers.

Germany does not share border with

  1. Netherlands

  2. France

  3. Italy

  4. Poland


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Germany does not share border with Italy.  

The Eklavya Model Residential Schools

  1. were set up to cater to the need of children of SC community
  2. provide quality and all round education after charging the least minimum fee
  3. reserve equal number of seats for girls and boys
  4. are provided funds under Article 275(1) of the Indian Constitution

Which of the above given statements are true?

  1. 1, 2 and 4

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 3 and 4

  4. 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In the context of the trend of establishing quality residential schools for the promotion of education in all areas and habitations in the country, the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) for ST students take their place among the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas, the Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas and the Kendriya Vidyalayas. The structure of EMRS is as follows:

  1. Admission to these schools will be through selection/competition with suitable provision for preference to children belonging to Primitive Tribal Groups, first generation students, etc.
    2. Sufficient land would be given by the State Government for the school, play grounds, hostels, residential quarters, etc. free of cost.
    3. The number of seats for boys and girls will be equal.
    4. In these schools, education will be entirely free.
  2. Every class can have maximum 60 students preferably in 2 sections of 30 students each and the total sanctioned strength of the school will be 480 students.

Consider the following statements regarding the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE):

  1. The law came into effect in the whole of India from 1 April, 2010.
  2. The Act makes education a fundamental right of every child between the ages of 6 and 14.
  3. The RTE Act is the first legislation in the world that puts the responsibility of ensuring enrollment, attendance and completion on the Government.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 2 and 3

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE), which was passed by the Indian parliament on 4 August, 2009, came into force on 1 April, 2010.

The law came into effect in the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

It describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years of age in India under Article 21-A of the Indian Constitution and makes it a fundamental right. The RTE Act is the first legislation in the world that puts the responsibility of ensuring enrollment, attendance and completion on the Government. In the U.S. and other countries, it is the parents' responsibility to send their children to schools.

With the implementation of the Direct Tax Code, which of the following categories of income (earlier exempted) will lose tax benefits?

  1. Equity Mutual Funds (ELSS)
  2. Term deposits and NSC (National Savings certificates)
  3. Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs)
  4. Long term infrastructure bonds
  1. Only 1 and 3

  2. Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. Only 2, 3 and 4

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

DTC removes most of the categories of exempted income. Equity Mutual Funds (ELSS), Term deposits, NSC (National Savings certificates), Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs), Long term infrastructures bonds, house loan principal repayment, stamp duty and registration fees on purchase of house property will lose tax benefits.

Under which of the following conditions will plants undergo wilting (loss of rigidity)?

  1. High temperature
  2. High humidity
  3. Heavy rainfall
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 3

  4. All of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Plants will undergo wilting in case of deficiency of water in the plant body.

1. In case of high temperature, the transpiration rate is more than than absorption of water, which causes water deficiency. 2. In case of high humidity, the transpiration rate decreases and it does not cause deficient gradient. 3. Similarly in case of heavy rainfall, the transpiration rate decreases and it does not cause deficient gradient.

The modern Indian economy is best characterised by

  1. market oriented mode of production

  2. capital intensive mode of production

  3. self-sufficient village system

  4. labour intensive mode of production


Correct Option: A

The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced a system of separate electorates for

  1. Muslims
  2. Sikhs
  3. Indian Christians
  4. Anglo-Indians
  5. Europeans
  1. Only 1, 2 and 3

  2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4

  3. Only 2, 3, 4 and 5

  4. All of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

This is a tricky question. It should be noted that it was the Government of India Act, 1909 that introduced the system of communal electorates for the Muslims by accepting the concept of 'separate electorates'. The Government of India Act, 1919, however, extended the principle by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and the Europeans. It did not introduce separate electorates for the Muslims, as they were already introduced by the Government of India Act, 1909.

Which of the following factors are responsible for the depreciation of Indian rupee (in 2011-12)?

  1. Capital account flows
  2. Persistent inflation
  3. Interest rate difference
  4. Current account deficit
  1. Only 2 and 4

  2. Only 1, 2 and 4

  3. Only 2, 3 and 4

  4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Indian currency (INR) has depreciated close to 22% in the last 1 year. The persistent decline in rupee is a cause of concern. Factors that pushed INR into the well are: 1. Continued Global uncertainty: Owing to uncertainty prevailing in Europe and slump in international market, investors prefer to stay away from risky investments (flight to security). 2. Current Account Deficit: While a country like China will be more than happy with a depreciating currency, the same doesn't apply for India. China exports more than it imports, thus a depreciating currency makes its exports cheaper in the International market, in turn making China more competitive. 3. Capital Account flows: Deficit countries need capital flows and surplus countries generate capital outflows. India needs dollars to finance its current account deficit. 4. Persistent inflation: India has experienced high inflation, above 8%, for almost two years. If inflation becomes a prolonged one, it leads to overall worsening of economic prospects and capital outflows and eventual depreciation of the currency. 5. Interest Rate Difference: Higher real interest rates generally attract foreign investment but due to slowdown in growth there is increasing pressure on RBI to decrease the policy rates. Under such conditions foreign investors tend to stay away from investing. 6. Lack of reforms: Key policy reforms like Direct Tax Code (DTC) and Goods and Service Tax (GST) have been in the pipe line for years. A retrospective tax law (GAAR) has already earned a lot of flak from the business community.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Both Earth and Mars are made up mostly of iron and rock.
  2. Pluto has been considered as a dwarf planet.

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The crust of Earth and Mars is mainly made up of iron and rocks. Statement 2 is also correct. Pluto is now considered a dwarf planet dwelling in the Kuiper Belt.

Which of the following statements is wrong about 'Rhesus' (Rh) factor?

  1. This system of blood factors is inherited along with that of the ABO.

  2. Rh system is different from ABO blood group system.

  3. We inherit some factors from each parent and it may occur that an Rh-positive baby is born of an Rh-negative mother.

  4. Everybody is either Rh positive or Rh negative.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

 The second major blood grouping system is the Rhesus (Rh) system. Like the ABO blood types, the Rh factor is an inherited blood protein, or antigen, on red blood cells.

Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of mammals?

  1. Homodont dentition
  2. Three auditory ossicles
  3. Four chambered heart
  4. Attached placenta
  1. Only 3

  2. Only 1 and 3

  3. Only 2, 3 and 4

  4. Only 2 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Mammals have the following characteristics:

  1. Heterodont dentation (different kinds of teeth like incisors, molars, premolars and canines)
  2. Three auditory ossicles (malleus, incus and stapes)
  3. Four chambered heart (two auricles and two ventricles)
  4. Attached placenta (The placenta is attached to the wall of the uterus by blood vessels that supply the fetus with oxygen and nutrition and remove waste from it.)

Choose the wrong pair.

  1. Charminar Trophy - Athletics

  2. Amrit Diwan Cup - Badminton

  3. Radha Mohan Cup - Weightlifting

  4. Agha Khan Cup - Hockey


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Radha Mohan Cup is associated with the game of Polo.

Consider the following statements:

  1. CIRUS is the oldest nuclear reactor of India.
  2. It supplied Plutonium that was used in Pokhran I.
  3. It was supplied from US and uses heavy water from Canada.

Select the correct statement(s).

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. All 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because CIRUS is the second oldest nuclear reactor of India, the oldest being APSARA. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because CIRUS (Canada India Research Utility Services) is a research reactor at the Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) in Trombay near Mumbai, India. CIRUS was supplied by Canada in 1954, but uses heavy water supplied by the U.S.

Consider the following facts about Arab Spring:

  1. It was also called the Jasmine Revolution because the national flower of Tunisia is jasmine.
  2. Syria was the third country where the revolution spread and the protests were well organized.
  3. Tawakul Karman, who came into prominence during the Arab Spring, is a Yemeni national, who has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for 2011.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 3 only

  2. 1 and 2

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 1 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Arab Revolution began in Tunisia, with the self immolation of an unemployed youth Mohamed Bouazizi on 17 December, 2010. The demonstrations were precipitated by high unemployment, food inflation, corruption, lack of freedom of speech and other political freedoms and poor living conditions. Yemen, not Syria, was the third country where the revolution spread.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about 'Buddha'?

  1. Buddha was a senior contemporary of Jaina tirthankara Mahavira.

  2. Buddha attained nirvana at Kusinara in eastern U.P.

  3. Buddha did not comment on the existence of God.

  4. Buddha delivered maximum number of sermons at Sravasti.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Buddha attained 'nirvana' (enlightenment) at Bodh Gaya. He had attained 'mahaparinirvana' (freedom from the cycle of birth and death) at Kusinara or Kusinagar in eastern U.P. All other statements are correct.

Between which two countries was the Tashkent Agreement signed?

  1. India and Uzbekistan

  2. India and Kazakhstan

  3. India and Pakistan

  4. India and Afghanistan


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Tashkent Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan. Tashkent Agreement, an accord signed by India's prime minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan's president Ayub Khan, ended the 17-day war between Pakistan and India of August-September 1965. A cease-fire had been secured by the United Nations Security Council on September 22, 1965.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Parinirvana refers to complete Nirvana.
  2. Nirvana refers to complete ending of suffering due to the extinguishing of greed, hatred and delusion.
  3. Samsara refers to the wheel of life.
  4. Maitreya refers to the appearance on the Earth, achievement of complete enlightenment, and teaching of pure dharma.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 2, 3 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is the correct statement. The concept of the Sanskrit word Parnirvana is the Final Nirvana that is attained upon the death of the physical body. Parinirvana is also sometimes called Maha-parinirvana which means Great Final Nirvana. Therefore, this day is commemorated as the day that the Buddha physically died and entered the final state of Parinirvana (or Maha-parinirvana). The day is also sometimes called The Buddha's Day of Final Extinguishment of the Causes of Suffering. Statement 2: It is the correct statement. The term Nirvana is usually translated and understood as meaning Enlightenment. However, Nirvana literally means to extinguish or to blow out and refers to the complete ending of suffering due to the extinguishing of greed, hatred and delusion. Statement 3: It is the correct statement. Samsara is the Wheel of Life and refers to the cyclical stages of existence that are characteristic of reincarnation or transmigration (birth-death-rebirth). Statement 4: It is correct statement. Maitreya is a bodhisattva who in the Buddhist tradition is to appear on Earth, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor of the historic Sakyamuni Buddha (Siddhartha Gautama Buddha). Hence, the correct option is 4.

The Govt. has set up seven Zonal Cultural Centres for development, preservation, promotion and dissemination of the traditional arts across the country. Which of the following is not among them?

  1. Patiala

  2. Udaipur

  3. Guwahati

  4. Allahabad


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Govt. has set up seven Zonal Cultural Centres for development, preservation, promotion and dissemination of the traditional arts across the country. Guwahati is not amongst them.  

Consider the following facts:

  1. India has given birth to many great religions, and religion in India has never been a static concept.
  2. Among the various religions practiced in India, five are said to have Indian origin. These are - Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, Zoroastrianism and Sikhism.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Religion bound ancient civilizations and culture in India. Religion began as a set of beliefs regarding nature and purpose of the Universe and gradually became organized system of belief binding people together into close knit groups with religion as their identity. Religion in India has never been static; it has continued to evolve through various movements, ideas and responses to those ideas. India has given birth to four religions - Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism and Sikhism. Others which have been 'imported' from abroad are Islam, Christianity, Zoroastrianism, Judaism and Bahai faith.

In 2016, what is the name of the tuberculosis (TB) curing miracle drug that was rolled-out in India as part of a special project for treating the cases of drug resistant TB?

  1. Betaquiline

  2. Bedaquiline

  3. Bentaquiline

  4. Becaquiline

  5. Besaquiline


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Bedaquiline

The Union Government appointed a five-member committee to review the working of the 12 year old Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act. Who is heading this committee?

  1. Arvind Subramanian

  2. N. K. Singh

  3. Urjit Patel

  4. Sumit Bose

  5. Rathin Roy


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The constitution FRBM panel was announced by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley while presenting the budget for fiscal 2016-17. 

Consider the following statements:

  1. Patanjali wrote the famous commentary called 'Ashtadhyayi' on 'Mahabhashya' of Panini.
  2. Patanjali was the contemporary of the Indo-Greek ruler Menander.

Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding Patanjali who was a celebrated commentator on Sanskrit grammar?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Patañjali, the great grammarian, was the author of the Mahâbhâṣya, a commentary on Pâṇini's Aṣṭâdhyâyî. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.) Patanjali was the contemporary of Pushyamitra of Sunga Dynasty. (Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.)

Who founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926?

  1. Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. Jawahar Lal Nehru

  3. Sarojini Naidu

  4. Bhagat Singh


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Bhagat Singh

Who among the following is related to the Bombay Land Revenue System?

  1. Pringle

  2. Thomas Munro

  3. Thomas Robertson

  4. Philip Francis


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Option 1: The first survey of the island city was conducted by British officer Pringle in 1827. This resulted into the misclassification of land after Pringle's survey. Option 2: In 1820, Thomas Munro was appointed governor of Madras, where he founded systems of revenue assessment and general administration which substantially persisted into the twentieth century. Option 3: In October 1901, the Secretary of State for India in Council appointed Sir Thomas Robertson, C.V.O, as Special Commissioner for Indian Railways to enquire into and report on the administration and working of the Indian Railways. Option 4: Philip Francis was one of the "advisors" of Warren Hastings. Hence, the correct option is 1.

Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Bills proposes to give powers to both Union and State to make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax?

  1. 111th Constitutional Amendment Bill

  2. 114th Constitutional Amendment Bill

  3. 115th Constitutional Amendment Bill

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option 1: 111th Constitutional Amendment Bill refers to professional management of co-operative societies. Option 2: 114th Constitutional Amendment Bill proposes that the Constitution allows every judge of a High Court including additional and acting judges to hold office till 62 years. The bill increases the age limit to 65 years. Option 3: The Government of India has introduced the 115th Constitutional Amendment Bill 2011, on Goods and Services Tax (GST) in the Budget Session of Parliament. The bill has been referred to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance. This was introduced in the Parliament to provide for levy of Goods and Services Tax (GST) by the Union and the States/Union Territories having legislature. Hence, the correct option is 3.

Match the contents of Set A with Set B, where Set A contains names of ancient Indian non-religious books and Set B lists names of authors.

 
Set A Set B
A. Kiratarjuniyam 1. Bhavabhuti
B. Swapnavasavadattam 2. Dandin
C. Malatimadhava 3. Bhasa
D. Dashkumarcharitam 4. Bharavi

The correct match is

  1. A - 2, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

  2. A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

  3. A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

  4. A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2

Which of the following authorities administers the form of oath prescribed in the Third Schedule?

  1. President of India

  2. Vice President of India

  3. Chief Justice of India

  4. Governor of a State


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The forms of oath prescribed in the Third Schedule of the Constitution are meant for the following candidates: • Members of Parliament and State Legislatures  • Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts • Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 

Hence, the correct option is 3.

Which of the following was a sea port found in the Indus Valley Civilisation?

  1. Tamralipti

  2. Lothal

  3. Bhrigukaccha

  4. Rangpur


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Lothal was a sea port found in the Indus Valley Civilisation. Lothal is one of the most prominent cities of the ancient Indus valley civilization. Located in Bhal region of the modern state of Gujarat and dating from 2400 BCE. Lothal's dock is the world's earliest known, connected the city to an ancient course of the Sabarmati river on the trade route between Harappan cities in Sindh and the peninsula of Saurashtra when the surrounding Kutch desert of today was a part of the Arabian Sea. 

Consider the given statements in regard to Naxalism in India:

  1. The term 'Naxal' is derived from the name of the village Naxalbari in the state of Chattisgarh, India, where the movement had its origin.
  2. Naxalites have been declared as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of India, 1967.
  3. In the novel 'The God of Small Things' by Aruna Roy, there is a reference to a character joining the Naxalites.

Which of the above statements is/are perfectly true?

  1. Both 1 and 3

  2. Both 1 and 2

  3. Only 2

  4. Both 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong as the village Naxalbari is in West Bengal, not in Chattisgarh.

Statement 2 is perfectly correct. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is an Indian law aimed at effective prevention of unlawful activities in India. Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. Naxalites have been declared as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act of India, 1967. 

Statement 3 is wrong. The novel 'The God of Small Things' is written by Arundhati Roy. Aruna Roy is an Indian political and social activist who founded and heads the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana.

Consider the following statements regarding the immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure.

  1. He/She is immune from any civil proceedings against him/her.
  2. But after giving 2 month notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted against him/her.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The immunity enjoyed by the President in respect of his/her personal acts, during his/her tenure is an exception to the fundamental right to equality (of treatment in similar circumstances and absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual) as mentioned in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. The President of India is immune from any criminal proceedings against him/her. But after giving 2 month notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him/her. 

Which of the following communities have been notified by the Government as 'minority' communities under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992?

  1. Muslims
  2. Christians
  3. Sikhs
  4. Buddhists
  5. Jains
  6. Parsis
  1. 1, 2, 3 and 6

  2. 3, 4, 5 and 6

  3. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

  4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Only the following five communities have been notified by the Government as 'minority' communities under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992:

  1. Muslims 2. Christians 3. Sikhs 4. Buddhists 5. Parsis
    Jains do not come under minority community.

Which one of the following proved to be Dalhousie's worst political blunder?

  1. Annexation of Punjab

  2. Occupation of lower Burma

  3. Abolition of the 'Doctrine of Lapse'

  4. Annexation of Oudh


Correct Option: D

History was created in Myanmar as the country’s first civilian government in over 5 decades was formed in 2016. Htin Kyaw took over as the country’s President, while Aung Suu Kyi was given the charge of

  1. Home Ministry

  2. Finance Ministry

  3. Human Resource Development Ministry

  4. Foreign Ministry

  5. Defence Ministry


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Foreign Ministry

Consider the following statements:

  1. After signing of the treaty of Allahabad, the British became the masters of fate of India.
  2. In 1765, Robert Clive signed the Treaty of Allahabad with the Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II.
  3. After the Battle of Plassey, the British signed a treaty with Siraj-ud-daulah, who was later executed by Miran.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. 2 only

  2. 3 only

  3. 1 and 2

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct because the famous battle of Buxar (22 October, 1764) on which the fate of India finally achieved the objective that the battle of Plassey (23 June 1757) failed to achieve. After the victory of Buxar, the English armies advanced towards Avadh and established their control over Banaras and Allahabad. A treaty was concluded between Nawab Shujauddaula and the British. The supremacy of the English was established in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa after this war. The existence of the Nawab of Avadh now fully depended on the mercy of the English. They also imprisoned the mughal emperor and extended the British territory towards north-west of Bengal. It curtailed the power of the Mughal emperor, yet they continued to have honour and prestige all over India. It also added to the power and prestige of the English. Statement 2: It is correct because Battle of Buxar was a decisive battle fought between British and Indian forces at Buxar, a town on the Ganges River. Mir Kasim, the nawab (governor) of Bengal, wanted to rid his territory of British control. He formed an alliance with the Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II, the Mughal emperors. The combined Indian armies invaded Bengal and clashed with British troops led by Major Hector Munro, in October 1764. It resulted in victory of the British and in1765, Robert Clive signed the Treaty of Allahabad with the Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II. The treaty effectively legalized the British East India Company's control over the whole of Bengal. Statement 3: It is incorrect because the Treaty of Alinagar was signed on February 9, 1757 between Robert Clive of the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj-ud-Daula. The signing of the treaty was one of the events leading up to the famous Battle of Plassey (2 July 1757). Later the consequence of Battle of Buxar (22 October 1764) was the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) signed between the prime victim Shuja-ud-Daula and the British, that secured Diwani Rights for the Company to collect and manage the revenues. Hence, the correct option is 3.

Consider the following facts:

  1. The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is an extremely difficult procedure. A motion containing the charges against the judges needs to be approved in both the Houses of the Parliament with at least 51% voting in favour of the motion.
  2. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can only be removed on the grounds of proven misdemeanor or incapacity.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A motion for the removal of judges of either the Supreme Court or the High Court needs to be approved by a special majority, i.e. 2/3rd of the members present and voting, in both Houses of the Parliament. So far, no judge has faced removal via the procedure enshrined in the Constitution.

Consider the following events:

A. Civil Disobedience Movement B. Nehru Report C. Communal Award

The correct chronological sequence of these events is

  1. B, A, C

  2. A, B, C

  3. C, B, A

  4. B, C, A


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: C, B, A

What was the correct sequence of formation of the following states?

  1. Nagaland, Haryana, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim

  2. Haryana, Sikkim, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh

  3. Nagaland, Haryana, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh

  4. Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Haryana, Sikkim


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Nagaland was formed in 1963, Haryana in 1966, Sikkim in 1975 and Arunachal Pradesh in 1987.

Which amendment to the constitution made it mandatory on the part of the President to accept the advice given by the council of ministers?

  1. 24th amendment

  2. 25th amendment

  3. 41st amendment

  4. 42nd amendment


Correct Option: D

The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal is to

  1. strengthen legislative control over administration

  2. supplement judicial control over administration

  3. protect and promote integrity in administration

  4. enable effective popular control over administration


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: protect and promote integrity in administration

Match the following:

 
List - I List - II
A. Individual Satyagraha

B. Forward Bloc

C. Rajaji Formula

D. INA Trials| 1. 1939

2. 1940

3. 1945

4. 1944|

  1. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  3. A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

  4. A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Individual Satyagraha, Forward Bloc, Rajaji Formula and INA Trials started in 1940, 1939, 1944 and 1945, respectively. Vinoba Bhave was first satyagrahi on 17 October, 1940 and Jawarharlal Nehru, the second. If the government did not arrest them, they planned to start moving towards Delhi. Subhash Chandra resigned from Congress Presidentship on 29 April 1939. On 3 May, 1939, he declared the formation of Forward Bloc. In response to the demand of Pakistan, Congress put forward the Rajaji Formula which formed the basis of Jinnah-Gandhi talks in 1944. They parleyed for 18 days, but to no avail.

Which of the following emergencies has never been proclaimed in India?

  1. Constitutional breakdown in the states leading to President's rule

  2. Financial emergency due to economic instability

  3. National emergency due to external factors

  4. National emergency due to internal disturbances


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Financial emergency due to economic instability

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In a Parliamentary democracy like India, the Government goes out of power if the Lower House passes a no confidence motion against the Government. Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for the removal of the Prime Minister through a no confidence motion passed in the Lok Sabha.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. (A) is false but (R) is true


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In a Parliamentary democracy like India, the Government goes out of power if the Lower House passes a no confidence motion against the Government. A motion of no confidence is a parliamentary motion which when passed would demonstrate to the head of state that the elected parliament no longer has confidence in (one or more members of) the appointed government.

One of the characteristics of a parliamentary system of Government in India is that

  1. the ministry is responsible to the parliament as well as the President

  2. the ministry is collectively responsible to both Houses of Parliament

  3. the ministry is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha

  4. the ministry is responsible to the Head of the State


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

One of the characteristics of a parliamentary system of Government in India is that the ministry is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Every State has a Legislative Assembly. Certain States have an upper House also called State Legislative Council. There is a Governor for each state who is appointed by the President. Governor is the Head of the State and the executive power of the State is vested in him. The Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as its head advises the Governor in the discharge of the executive functions.

Consider the following:

  1. MAT
  2. Fringe Benefit Tax
  3. Banking Cash Withdrawal Tax
  4. Value Added Tax

Which of these is/are presumptive tax(es)?

  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 1, 2 and 3 only

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The concept of presumptive tax covers a wide variety of alternative means for determining the tax base, ranging from methods of reconstructing income based on administrative practice, which can be rebutted by the taxpayer, to true minimum taxes with tax bases specified in legislation. Statement 1: It is correct. An indirect attack through presumptive taxation may become more successful than direct attempts to reduce concessions. Such indirect methods also reduce tax evasion. Further, transfer pricing practices by multinationals to optimise on cross-country differences in corporate tax rates become less profitable. A minimum alternate tax (MAT) that targets the average tax liability across tax payers is a method that allows keeping the marginal tax rate low. Statements 2 and 3: They are correct. As per Dr. Kelkar Committee's report, the Finance Minister has introduced two controversial provisions levying separate tax on Fringe Benefits to employees and Banking Cash Transactions. Statement 4: VAT is not a presumptive tax. Hence, the correct option is 3.

The Foreign Exchange Reserves in India include

  1. Foreign Exchange Assets of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  2. Gold Stock of RBI
  3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) holding of the Government
  4. Reserve Tranche Position

Find the correct options.

  1. 1 and 3

  2. 1, 2 and 3

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. All of them


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The foreign exchange reserves of India include Foreign Exchange Assets of the Reserve Bank of India, Gold Stock of RBI, Special Drawing Rights (SDR) holding of the Government and Reserve Tranche Position (The difference between a member's quota and the IMF's holdings of its currency is a country's Reserve Tranche Position.) 

The framers of the Constitution adopted the doctrine of judicial review

  1. to ensure proper working of the parliamentary system of government

  2. to ensure proper working of the federal system of Government

  3. to overcome the limitations of a rigid Constitution

  4. to prevent misuse of power by the judiciary


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: to ensure proper working of the parliamentary system of government

Which among the following are some of the main features of a 'Limited Liability Partnership'?

  1. The partners have the right to manage the business directly.
  2. Minimum 2 partners are required and there is no limit on maximum.
  3. It encourages smaller business entities to undertake larger ventures.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Limited Liability Partnership is a partnership in which some or all partners (depending on the jurisdiction) have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. In an LLP one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner's misconduct or negligence. In an LLP, some partners have a form of limited liability similar to that of the shareholders of a corporation. Some of its major benefits are:

1. The partners have the right to manage the business directly.
2. Minimum of 2 partners and no limit on maximum.
3. Encourages smaller business entities to undertake larger ventures.
Hence, all the three statements are correct.

The instrument(s) used by foreign funds and investors who are not registered with SEBI but are interested in Indian Securities is/are

  1. Collateralized Debt Obligations

  2. Participatory Notes

  3. Pump Priming

  4. Credit Default Swap


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) are a type of structured asset-backed security (ABS) with multiple "tranches" that are issued by special purpose entities and collateralized by debt obligations including bonds and loans. (Hence, option '1' is incorrect.) Participatory notes (PNs / P-Notes) are instruments used by investors or hedge funds that are not registered with the SEBI (Securities & Exchange Board of India) to invest in Indian securities. SEBI permitted FIIs to register and participate in the Indian stock market in 1992. Indian based brokerages buy Indian-based securities and then issue PNs to foreign investors. Any dividends or capital gains collected from the underlying securities go back to the investors. (Hence, option '2' is correct.) The term "pump priming" is derived from the operation of older pumps; a suction valve had to be primed with water so that the pump would function properly. With these pumps, pump priming assumes that the economy must be primed to function properly once again. In this regard, government spending is assumed to stimulate private spending, which in turn should lead to economic expansion. (Hence, option '3' is incorrect.) A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial swap agreement that the seller of the CDS will compensate the buyer in the event of a loan default or other credit event. (Hence, option '4' is incorrect.)

Which of the following programmes in India comes under the Department of Rural Development?

  1. Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY)
  2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (SGSY)
  3. Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC)
  4. National Social Assistance programme (NSAP)
  1. 1, 3 and 4

  2. 2 and 4

  3. 1, 2 and 4

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Ministry of Rural Development has three departments viz. Department of Rural Development, Department of Drinking Water Supply and Department of Land Resources.

Programmes under the Department of Rural Development:

  • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
  • Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)
  • Rural Housing (Indira Awaas Yojana)
  • DRDA Administration
  • Training Schemes
  • Promotion of Voluntary Schemes and Social Action Programme, organization of beneficiaries, advancement and dissemination of rural technology through CAPART
  • Monitoring mechanism
  • Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA)
Programmes under the Department of Drinking Water Supply:
  • Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme
  • Sector Reforms
  • Sub Missions
  • Information, Education and Communication (IEC)
  • Human Resource Development (HRD)
  • Management Information System (MIS)
  • Monitoring And Evaluation
  • Research And Development
  • Total Sanitation Campaign 2004
Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP), Desert Development Programme (DDP), Integrated Wasteland Development Programme (IWDP), etc. come under the Department of Land Resources. 

On which of the following grounds does Article 16 of the Indian Constitution debar any kind of discrimination?

  1. Religion
  2. Race and caste
  3. Gender
  4. Descent
  5. Place of birth
  1. Only 1, 2 and 3

  2. Only 1, 3 and 5

  3. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 16 provides that there shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in the matter of employment or appointment to any office under the State. This Article also provides that no citizen shall be ineligible for any office or employment under the State on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent and place of birth or any of them.

Consider the following statements:

  1. 9 Indian states have coastline.
  2. Gujarat has the longest coastline.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Nine Indian states have coastlines. They are Kerala Tamilnadu Karnataka Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Goa Maharashtra Orissa West Bengal Gujarat has the longest coastline. (Hence, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.)

Which of the following is/are not financial committee(s)?

(i) Estimates Committee (ii) Public Accounts Committee (iii) Committee on Public Undertaking (iv) Committee of Private Members, Bills and Resolutions

  1. Only (ii)

  2. Only (iii)

  3. Only (iv)

  4. Both (iii) and (iv)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Both (iii) and (iv)

Match the following:

 
List - I (Writ) List - II (Purpose)
A. Writ of Mandamus 1. Prohibition of an action
B. Writ of Prohibition 2. Direction to the official for the performance of a duty
C. Writ of Certiorari 3. Trial of the right to title of elective office
D. Writ of Quo Warranto 4. Transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction
  1. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3

  3. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  4. A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The purpose of Writ of Mandamus is direction to the official for the performance of a duty. Prohibition is prohibition of an action, Certiorari is transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction and Quo Worranto is trial of the right to title of elective office. A writ of mandamus is the name of one of the prerogative writs in the common law, and is issued by a superior court to compel a lower court or a government officer to perform mandatory or purely ministerial duties correctly. A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing something the law prohibits. Certiorari is a type of writ seeking judicial review, recognized in U.S, Roman, English, Philippine, and other laws, meaning an order by a higher court directing a lower court, tribunal, or public authority to send the record in a given case for review. Quo warranto is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right or power they claim to hold.

Bundelkhand upland is an extension of which plateau?

  1. Deccan Plateau

  2. Chhota Nagpur Plateau

  3. Malwa Plateau

  4. Bhander Plateau


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau in India, making up most of the southern part of the country. It is located between three mountain ranges: the Western Ghats form its western boundary, and the Eastern Ghats its eastern boundary. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Orissa, West Bengal, Bihar and Chhattisgarh. Malwa Plateau is a plateau region in north-central India. It is bounded by the Madhya Bharat Plateau and Bundelkhand Upland to the north, the Vindhya Range to the east and south, and the Gujarat Plains to the west. The Bhander Plateau is a plateau in the state of Madhya Pradesh in India. It has an area of 10,000 km².

Which of the following rivers originate from the Amarkantak Plateau?

  1. Narmada and Tapi

  2. Tapi and Son

  3. Narmada and Son

  4. Narmada, Son and Tapi


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Amarkantak region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting point of the Vindhyas and the Satpuras, with the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum. This is where the Narmada River, the Son River and Johila River emerge. (Hence, option '3' is correct). The Tapi River originates in the Betul district from a place called Multai. 

The 'Nagarjuna Sagar Project' is built on river

  1. Godavari

  2. Tapti

  3. Krishna

  4. Cauvery


Correct Option: C

Arrange the forest-types from foothill to top in Himalayan ranges:

  1. Wet temperate type
  2. Deciduous forests
  3. Pine forests
  4. Alpine forests
  1. 4 - 2 - 1 - 3

  2. 4 - 3 - 1 - 2

  3. 3 - 4 - 1 - 2

  4. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.

Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas.

It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000 - 2,000 m.
Between 1,500 - 1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range.
In the higher reaches there is a transition to Alpine forests and pastures. Silver firs, junipers, pines, birch and rhododendrons, etc. occur between 3,000 - 4,000 m.
At higher altitudes, mosses and lichens form part of the tundra vegetation.
Hence the correct sequence from foothills to the top is 2-1-3-4 in the given question.

Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): The practice of carving out smaller states out of larger ones, and of breaking up larger districts into smaller ones is not good for the nationalist fabric of the nation. Reason (R): The migration from villages to cities; and from cities to towns is blurring demarcations of identity and turning the nation into a melting pot of myriad cultures.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Consider the following statements regarding the price rise:

(a) Hoarding of essential commodities (b) Fall in production (c) Lack of proper storage facility leading to wastage (d) Excess of demand over supply

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. Only (a)

  2. Only (b) and (c)

  3. Only (a), (b) and (d)

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct because by hoarding essential commodities or by creating man made shortage leads to lesser availability, which ultimately leads to demand-pull inflation. Statement 2 is correct. Fall in production decrease in supply over demand. Statement 3 is correct. Lack of proper storage facility leads to decrease in availability of the goods. Statement 4 is correct. Increase in demand over supply also leads to demand-pull inflation.

The regions which have 10-20 cm rainfall in October and November and less than 5 cm in rest of the months belong to which of the following states?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Rajasthan
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 1 and 3

  3. Only 1

  4. Only 1 and 4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The regions which have 10-20 cm rainfall in October and November and less than 5 cm in rest of the months belong to Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh.

Which of the following thermal power plants is/are correctly matched with the states they are located in?

I. Chhabra Power Plant - Rajasthan II. Koradi Power Plant - Andhra Pradesh III. Obra Power Plant - Uttar Pradesh

  1. Only III

  2. Only I and III

  3. Only II and III

  4. Only I and II


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Koradi Power Plant is located in Maharashtra.

What is the name given to the imaginary line separating Earth's mantle from its crust?

  1. Gutenberg Weichert Discontinuity

  2. Mohorovicic Discontinuity

  3. Asthenosphere

  4. Mesopause


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Gutenberg Discontinuity is the boundary, as detected by changes in seismic waves, between the Earth's lower mantle and the outer core about 1800 miles below the surface.  

Which of the following cities is located on the same longitude as that used as reference for Indian Standard Time?

  1. Vishakhapatnam

  2. Hyderabad

  3. Puducherry

  4. Chennai


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Vishakhapatnam is located on the same longitude as that used as reference for Indian Standard Time.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Strait of Hormuz?

  1. It is between the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.
  2. It is surrounded by Iran, UAE, Bahrain and Oman.
  3. Strait of Hormuz is strategically an important choke point.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong as the Strait of Hormuz is between the Gulf of Oman in the south-east and the Persian Gulf. Statement 2 is wrong as on the north coast is Iran and on the south coast is the United and Musandam, an enclave of Oman. Statement 3 is correct. In military strategy, a choke point is a geographical feature on land such as a valley, defile or a bridge, or at sea such as a strait which an armed force is forced to pass, sometimes on a substantially narrower front, and therefore greatly decreasing its combat power, in order to reach its objective. Strait of Hormuz is one such choke point. Hence, option '3' is correct.

What are kayals?

  1. Seasonal streams that flow through the Shiwaliks

  2. Shallow lagoons along the west coast of India

  3. Moving sand dunes in the Thar Desert

  4. Thick alluvial deposits in the Great Plains of North India


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Kayals are the shallow lagoons and backwaters along the west coast of India. Seasonal streams that flow through the Shiwaliks are called Chos.

Match the lists correctly.

Five Year Plan (FYP) Main Focus
1. Second FYP A. Growth with equity and Distributive Justice
2. Third FYP B. Modernisation and Technological development
3. Seventh FYP C. Self reliance & growth with stability
4. Ninth FYP D. Rapid industrialization
  1. 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C, 4 - D

  2. 1 - D, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - A

  3. 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A

  4. 1 - D, 2 - B, 3 - A, 4 - C


Correct Option: B
Explanation:
Five Year Plan (FYP) Main Focus
1. Second FYP D. Rapid industrialization
2. Third FYP C. Self reliance & growth with stability
3. Seventh FYP B. Modernisation and Technological development
4. Ninth FYP A. Growth with equity and Distributive Justice

 

A rift valley is a linear-shaped lowland between highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of a geologic rift or fault, which is subsequently further deepened by the forces of erosion. In this context, which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. World's largest fresh water lakes are typically rift valleys.
  2. The most extensive rift valley is located along the crest of the mid-ocean ridge system and is the result of sea floor spreading.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A rift valley is linear-shaped lowland between highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of a geologic rift or fault. This action is manifest as crustal extension, a spreading apart of the surface which is subsequently further deepened by the forces of erosion. When the tensional forces are strong enough to cause the plate to split apart, it will do so such that a center block will drop down relative to its flanking blocks. The largest freshwater lakes in the world are all located in rift valleys. The most extensive rift valley is located along the crest of the mid-ocean ridge system and is the result of sea floor spreading. Examples of this type of rift include the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise. 

Which of the following countries do NOT form a part of the 'Horn of Africa'?

  1. Somalia
  2. Djibouti
  3. Tanzania
  4. Uganda
  5. Eritrea
  6. Ethiopia
  1. 3 and 4

  2. 2, 4 and 5

  3. 3, 4 and 6

  4. 3, 4, 5 and 6


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Horn of Africa is a peninsula in East Africa that juts hundreds of kilometers into the Arabian Sea and lies along the southern side of the Gulf of Aden. It is the easternmost projection of the African continent. The Horn of Africa denotes the region containing the countries of Eritrea, Djibouti, Ethiopia and Somalia.

Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion: Ocean salinity at the tropics is higher than the average water salinity of all the oceans. Reason: The evaporation rate is higher at the equator.

  1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

  2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason does not explain the assertion.

  3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.

  4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The salinity of seawater is usually 35 parts per thousand in most marine areas. This salinity measurement is a total of all the salts that are dissolved in the water. Evaporation of ocean water and formation of sea ice both increase the salinity of the ocean. Ocean salinity decreases from equator towards poles. Reason is that the evaporation rate is high at the equator.  

The Oxus River is a Greek river known to man since thousands of years. Of late, it has been a subject of intense research because it has continuously been shifting its course. How is this river more commonly known at present?

  1. Kara Kum

  2. Amu Darya

  3. Panj River

  4. Kyzyl-Suu


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Kara Kum is a desert in Central Asia (literally,'black sands'). Panj River is a tributary of Oxus. Kyzyl-Suu is another name for Vakhsh river, another tributary of Oxus.

The consequence(s) of ocean acidification is/are

  1. decrease in the noise propagation
  2. over-population of shell creatures
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Ocean acidification is the decrease in the pH and increase in acidity of the Earth's oceans caused by the uptake of anthropogenic carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. About a quarter of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere goes into the oceans, where it forms carbonic acid. Statement 1 is wrong as ocean acidification allows sound to propagate, further increasing ocean noise and impacting animals that use sound for echolocation or communication. Statement 2 is wrong because when ocean pH falls, the concentration of carbonate ions get under saturated and structures made of calcium carbonate become vulnerable to dissolution. Species like shellfish and pteropods experience dissolution when exposed to elevated CO2. Hence, option '4' is correct.

Which of the following can be the reasons of soil acidification?

  1. Heavy rainfall
  2. Use of fertilizer
  3. Shifting cultivation
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Increase of concentration of hydrogen ions in the soil is known as soil acidification. The main cause of soil acidification is inefficient use of nitrogen fertilizer. Heavy rainfall may also lead to soil acidification as the bases in soils are washed away. Shifting cultivation does not lead to soil acidification, although it leads to generating infertile soil. 

Consider the following statements:

  1. The National Wasteland Development Board in India comes under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
  2. The Integrate Wasteland Development Project Scheme has taken up the development of forest wastelands.
  3. Cultivable waste lands include laterite lands.
  4. Uncultivable wastelands include surface water logged and saline lands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 3

  2. 1 and 2

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. All of the statements


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong as the National Wasteland Development Board comes under the Ministry of Rural Areas and Employment. Wasteland is the land that is adversely affected by water erosion, wind erosion, shift cultivation, etc. Statement 2 is wrong as the Integrated Wasteland Development Project is for the development of non-forest wastelands. Statement 3 is correct as there are two types of wastelands:

  1. Cultivable wastelands that include surface water logged laterite and saline lands.
  2. Uncultivable lands that include rocky lands and snow capped mountains. Statement 4 is wrong as stated in above reason. Hence, only statement 3 is correct and therefore, the correct option is 1.

The boundary line between USA and Canada is known as

  1. 49th parallel

  2. 38th parallel

  3. 12th parallel

  4. 17th parallel


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The boundary line between USA and Canada is known as 49th parallel. 

Consider the following facts:

  1. It is the longest river that flows only through India.
  2. The Sri Ram Sagar Project is constructed on this river.
  3. Jayakwadi Dam, one of the largest earthen dams in India, is built across this river.

Which of the following rivers do the given facts refer to?

  1. Narmada

  2. Cauveri

  3. Godavari

  4. Krishna


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

With a length of 1465 km, river Godavari is the second longest river in India, second only to river Ganges, and the longest in southern India. For this, it is also known as “Dakshin Ganga”.

The Sri Ram Sagar Project which was constructed on this river (1964-69) serves the irrigation needs of Adilabad, Nizamabad, Karimnagar and Warangal districts.
The Jayakwadi Dam near Paithan, which is one of the largest earthen dams in India, is built across river Godavari.

The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by

  1. sunlight
  2. soil texture
  3. human activities
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The development of vegetation community in any ecosystem is affected by all the given components. As sunlight helps in photosynthesis, soil provides minerals, water etc. Human activities can alter or fully destroy a vegetation community.

Which of these statements regarding eutrophication is/are correct?

  1. Primary productivity becomes low.
  2. Eutrophication leads to a state of hypoxia in water bodies.
  3. Availability of oxygen increases.
  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 3 only

  4. Both 1 and 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Primary productivity is high in eutrophic water bodies. Due to excessive nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus, these water bodies are able to support an abundance of aquatic plants, thereby leading to a high primary productivity. Because of abundance of aquatic plants and algae, the oxygen availability decreases. When organisms (like aquatic plants and algae) die, they consume the oxygen in the body of water, thereby creating the state of hypoxia.

As biofuels are derived from living matter, so they have various advantages which include

  1. reduced use of fertilizers
  2. increasing agricultural diversity
  3. renewable source of energy

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 3 only

  2. 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as: Bio-fuels may lead to monoculture which refers to practice of producing the same crops year after year. Thus, they do not increase agricultural diversity. Also bio-fuels are produced from crops and these crops need fertilizers to grow better. Thus, they do not reduce the use of fertilizer.

Only option 3 is correct as: Biofuels are renewable source and this is their advantage compared to non-renewable fossil fuels.

In ecology, the term “standing crop” signifies

  1. total biomass of whole organic matter

  2. total biomass of heterotrophs

  3. total area covered by crops

  4. total increase in crop production by use of fertilizers


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In ecology, the term “standing crop” signifies the total biomass of whole organic matter of an ecosystem.

Great Indian Bustard is one of the endangered species. Their population has been diminishing due to which of the following reasons?

  1. Habitat loss
  2. Frequent poaching
  3. Construction of windmills
  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 3 only

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The great Indian bustards have been vanishing over the years due to habitat loss. Thar Desert is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to great Indian bustards. While changing lifestyle in the desert and uncontrollable human activities have endangered the species, thousands of windmills around the park are posing a serious threat to the great Indian bustard.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

 
List I
(Wildlife Sanctuaries) List II
(States)
A. Namdapha 1. Karnataka
B. Periyar 2. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Bandipur 3. Manipur
D. Lamjao 4. Kerala
  1. A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

  2. A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

  3. A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary (PNP) is a protected area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala, south India. Bandipur National Park, established in 1973 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 km2 in area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.

Which of the following is/are example(s) of biofertilizers?

  1. Blue green algae
  2. Ammonium nitrate
  3. Azospirillium
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bio-fertilizers provide eco-friendly organic agro-input and are more cost-effective than chemical fertilizers. Bio-fertilizers such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Azospirilium and blue green algae (BGA) have been in use for a long time. Ammonium nitrate is an example of chemical fertilizer.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about yellow rust infection?

  1. It is the appearance of yellow-coloured stripes produced parallel along the grain.
  2. It takes place in the kharif crop.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong because yellow rust is the appearance of yellow-coloured stripes produced parallel along the venations of each leaf blade due to the presence of uredinia, a class of fungi in the wheat plants. This disease is found in wheat grown in cooler environments. It can be controlled by breeding resistant varieties Statement 2 is wrong because wheat is a rabi crop. Rabi crops are sown in autumn and harvested in the winter season. They include wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. Kharif crops are sown in rainy season. They include Millets (Bajra and Jowar), Paddy (Rice), Maize, Moong (Pulses), Groundnut, Red Chillies, Cotton, Soyabean, Sugarcane and Turmeric. Hence, both statements are wrong.

The recent concept of “Go and No-Go Zones” created by the Ministry of Environment and Forests is applicable for which of the following areas?

  1. Coal-bearing Areas

  2. Coastal Regulation Zones

  3. Core Areas of Biosphere Reserves

  4. Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to MOEF, headed by Jairam Ramesh (now Union Minister of Rural Development), a 'no-go' zone is a densely forested area where mining will not be allowed at any cost. Thirty-five per cent of coal mining areas fall in "no-go areas" where mining will not be allowed.  

By which of the following ways would exposure to higher amounts of UV radiation (due to ozone depletion) impact the plant community?

  1. Increase in photosynthesis
  2. Decline in water use efficiency
  3. Increase growth and flowering in plants
  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Increased UV radiations result in reduced growth, photosynthesis and flowering as increased UV radiations (due to ozone depletion) would make it difficult for leaves of green plants to exchange gases with the atmosphere. Due to increased temperature consequent upon increased UV radiation, the evaporation rate of surface water will increase and soil moisture would decrease leading to drying of agricultural crops and hence reduced yield.

Strontium-90 is one of the isotopes which results from a nuclear fall out. Which of the following facts about it are true?

  1. It tends to deposit in bones and bone marrow.
  2. It has a half life of 29 years.
  3. It can cause thyroid related problems.
  4. It can cause leukemia.
  5. Potassium iodide can block it from adversely affecting human body.
  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  3. 2, 3 and 5

  4. 1, 2 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statements 3 and 5 are true with respect to another radioactive element, Iodine-129.

DPT refers to a class of combination vaccines against three infectious diseases in humans: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough) and tetanus caused by bacteria. Which of the following is/are correctly matched with their causative pathogens?

  1. Diphtheria - Corynebacterium
  2. Pertussis - Bordetella
  3. Tenanus - Clostridium
  1. Only 3

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. All of them


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Explanation

  • Diphtheria is an upper respiratory tract illness caused by the bacterium 'Corynebacterium diphtheriae'. Because of widespread and routine childhood DPT immunizations, diphtheria is now rare in many parts of the world.
  • Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious bacterial disease caused by the bacterium 'Bordetella pertussis'. In some countries, this disease is called the 100 days' cough.
  • Tetanus is a condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers caused by the bacterium 'Clostridium tetani'.

Consider the following regarding the differences between CT scan and MRI.

  1. A computed tomography (CT) scanner is a good tool for examining tissue composed of elements of a higher atomic number (such as bones) than the tissue surrounding them. MRI, on the other hand, is best suited for soft tissues.
  2. MRI is also best suited for cases when a patient is to undergo the exam several times successively in the short term, unlike CT which exposes the patient to the hazards of ionizing radiation.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A computed tomography (CT) scanner uses X-rays, a type of ionizing radiation, to acquire images, making it a good tool for examining tissue composed of elements of a higher atomic number than the tissue surrounding them, such as bone and calcifications (calcium based tissues) within the body. MRI, on the other hand, uses non-ionizing radio frequency (RF) signals to acquire its images and is best suited for soft tissue. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.) MRI is also best suited for cases when a patient is to undergo the exam several times successively in the short term, because, unlike CT, it does not expose the patient to the hazards of ionizing radiation. (Hence, statement 2 is also correct.)

Which of the following trees is known as “Axe-breaker”?

  1. Yerba Mate

  2. Quebaracho

  3. Wattle tree

  4. Parana pine


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Quebaracho is known as 'Axe-breaker'. Quebracho is a common name in Spanish to describe very hard wood tree species. The etymology of the name derived from quiebrahacha meaning axe-breaker.

Which gland regulates sleeping patterns in humans?

  1. Thyroid gland

  2. Adrenal gland

  3. Pituitary gland

  4. Pineal gland


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Thyroid is a butterfly-shaped gland in the lower front part of the neck. It controls metabolism and keeps the functioning of whole body properly. The thyroid gland controls how quickly the body uses energy, makes proteins, and controls how sensitive the body is to other hormones. Adrenal glands, also known as suprarenal glands, are triangular-shaped glands located on top of each kidney. They are chiefly responsible for releasing hormones in response to stress through the synthesis of corticosteroids such as cortisol and catecholamines such as epinephrine. The adrenal glands affect the functioning of kidney through the secretion of aldosterone, a hormone involved in regulating the osmolarity of blood plasma. Pituitary gland is master endocrine gland in vertebrate animals. The hormones secreted by the pituitary stimulate and control the functioning of almost all the other endocrine glands in the body. Pituitary hormones also promote growth and control the water balance of the body. The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland in the vertebrate brain. It produces the serotonin derivative melatonin, a hormone that affects the modulation of wake/sleep patterns and seasonal functions.

Which of the following lenses would you prefer to read small letters of dictionary?

  1. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm

  2. A concave lens of focal length 30 cm

  3. A convex lens of focal length 5 cm

  4. A concave lens of focal length 5 cm


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A convex lens of focal length 5 cm is preferred to read small letters of dictionary. To view the small letters in a dictionary, a convex lens of small focal length is suitable. This is because for working as a simple microscope, convex lens of small focal length is needed. The image is formed at the near point (D = 25 cm) for easy viewing.

Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood is an indication that the

  1. heart is not functioning

  2. kidneys are not functioning properly

  3. lungs are functioning

  4. liver is not functioning


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the blood is an indication that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Kidneys play a critical role not only in excreting waste products, but also in maintaining electrolyte and water balance. As kidney function declines, nitrogenous waste products, i.e. blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine accumulate.

Consider the following facts about genome composition:

  1. Comparing genome compositions helps scientists to understand the evolutionary history of a given genome.
  2. Most of the genome (almost 85-90%) in prokaryotes is repetitive DNA.
  3. Mammals and plant genomes are made up of repetitive DNA.

Which of the above are true?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 1 and 3

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Genome composition is used to describe the make up of contents of a haploid genome, which should include genome size, proportions of non-repetitive DNA and repetitive DNA in details. By comparing the genome compositions between genomes, scientists can better understand the evolutionary history of a given genome. In prokaryotes, most of the genome (85-90%) is non-repetitive DNA, which means coding DNA mainly forms it, while non-coding regions only take a small part. On the contrary, eukaryotes have the feature of exon-intron organization of protein coding genes; the variation of repetitive DNA content in eukaryotes is also extremely high. When referring to mammals and plants, the major part of genome is composed by repetitive DNA.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Smallpox has been completely eradicated worldwide.
  2. BCG vaccine is used to protect against tuberculosis.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. According to World Health Organization (WHO), smallpox has been completely eradicated worldwide. Statement 2 is also correct. BCG vaccine is used to protect against tuberculosis.

Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): The water and minerals absorbed by the roots of tall trees ascend to the highest aerial parts against the gravitational force. Reason (R): Root pressure helps this process of ascent of sap in tall trees.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.

  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The water and minerals absorbed by the roots of tall trees ascend to the highest aerial parts against the gravitational force as root pressure helps this process of ascent of sap in tall trees. As a result of transpiration pull, the water column found in xylem elements is virtually pulled upwards and outwards from one end, but the same water column is also subjected to another opposing force called gravitational pull. 

Match the following:

 
Column I Column II
(1) Antacids (a) Pain killing effect
(2) Tranquillizers (b) Treatment of acidity
(3) Analgesics (c) Treatment of stress
(4) Antihistamines (d) To get relief from different types of allergies
  1. (1) - (d), (2) - (b), (3) - (a), (4) - (c)

  2. (1) - (d), (2) - (a), (3) - (b), (4) - (c)

  3. (1) - (b), (2) - (c), (3) - (a), (4) - (d)

  4. (1) - (c), (2) - (d), (3) - (a), (4) - (b)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The correct order is: (1) Antacids - (b) Treatment of acidity (2) Tranquillizers - (c) Treatment of stress (3) Analgesics – (a) Pain killing effect (4) Antihistamines – (d) To get relief from different types of allergies

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