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Legal and Regulatory Aspects of Bank (JAIIB)

Attempted 0/120 Correct 0 Score 0

Which of the following groups is not included in the term 'goods', as per Sale of Goods Act?

  1. Shares and stocks

  2. Grass and shares

  3. Actionable claims and stock

  4. Stocks and grass


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

As per Sale of Goods Act, “goods” means every kind of movable property other than actionable claims and money.

A suit is deemed to have been instituted (filed) in a court

  1. when the court fee has been paid

  2. when plaint is presented to the proper officer in the court

  3. when plaint has been acknowledged by the court

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit is instituted in an ordinary case, when the plaint is presented to the proper officer or in an ordinary case, when the plaint is presented to the proper officer.

Which of the following are essential functions of banks as indicated in Section 5(b) of Banking Regulation Act?

(a) accept deposits and lend or invest such deposits (b) accept deposit and undertake non-fund based business (c) accept deposits and undertake remittance business (d) lend, invest and issue letters of credit

  1. (a) and (d) only

  2. (a) and (c) only

  3. (c) only

  4. (a) only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As indicated in Section 5(b) of Banking Regulation Act - “banking” means the accepting, for the purpose of lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise, and withdrawal by cheque, draft, order or otherwise.

Private Sector Banks are regulated by

(a) Companies Act 1956 (b) Banking Regulation Act 1949 (c) RBI Act 1934 (d) banking Companies (Acquisition & Transfer of Undertakings) Act 1970

  1. (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. (b), (c) and (d) only

  3. (a), (c) and (d) only

  4. (a) to (d) all


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: (a), (b) and (c) only

Other than the business specified u/s 6 (1) of Banking Regulation Act, a bank can undertake any other business which can be prescribed/decided by

(a) Central Govt. (b) RBI (c) Board of the Bank (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

  1. (a) and (b) only

  2. (b) and (c) only

  3. (d) only

  4. (a) only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In addition to the business of banking, banking company may engage in any other forms of business which the Central Government may by notification in the Official Gazette, specify as a form of business in which it is lawful for a banking company to engage u/s 6(1).

Time required for obtaining a copy of the order or award shall be excluded while computing the limitation period for

  1. filing review application

  2. filing revision

  3. filing an application to set aside the award

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal or an application for leave to appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded. In computing the period of limitation for an application to set aside an award, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 

Which of the following are regulated by Banking Regulation Act 1949?

(a) Public Sector Banks (b) State Bank Group Banks (c) RRBs (d) Coop Land Mortgage Banks

  1. (a) to (d) all

  2. (a) to (c) only

  3. (a), (b) and (d) only

  4. (a), (c) and (d) only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal or an application for leave to appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded.

Who can suspend the operation of banking company and on whose recommendations?

  1. RBI, on the recommendations of Central Govt.

  2. RBI, on its own

  3. Central Govt, on its own

  4. Central Govt, on recommendations of RBI


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Section 45 states: Power of Reserve Bank to apply to Central Government for suspension of business by a banking company and to prepare scheme of reconstitution of amalgamation.

As per Sale of Goods Act, ____ goods mean the goods identified and agreed upon, at the time a contract of sale is made.

  1. future

  2. specific

  3. movable

  4. immovable


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under sale of goods act, specific goods mean goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made.

In the context of Cooperative Banks, which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Coop bank operating in one State obtains registration under State Coop Societies Act. (b) For coop banks operating in more than one State, Central Govt. appoints Registrar. (c) Coop banks are under purview of BR Act u/s 56. (d) Where coop bank is registered under DICGC Act, RBI can order its winding up.

  1. (a) to (d) all

  2. (a) to (c) only

  3. (a), (c) and (d) only

  4. (b) and (d) only


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: (a) to (d) all

Before declaring a dividend, a banking company has to reduce from its profits

(a) preliminary or share selling expenses (b) organization expenses (c) brokerage and loss incurred (d) bad debts for which adequate provision has been made

  1. Only (a) to (c)

  2. Only (b) to (d)

  3. Only (a) and (d)

  4. Only (b) and (c)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

No banking company shall pay any dividend on its shares until all its capi­talised expenses (including preliminary expenses, organisation expenses, share-selling commission, brokerage, amounts of losses incurred and any other item of expenditure not represented by tangible assets) have been completely written off.

As per Sale of Goods Act, _____ goods are those which are to be manufactured by the seller after making contract of sale.

  1. future

  2. specific

  3. movable

  4. immovable


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under Section 2 in The Sale of Goods Act, 1930, future goods mean goods to be manufactured or acquired by the seller after the making of the contract of sale.

Which of the following statements are not correct in connection with shareholding in an Indian bank under provision of BR Act?

  1. There is no ceiling on a person’s holding of shares.

  2. No shareholder can exercise voting rights in excess of 10% of total voting rights.

  3. The provision of 10% ceiling restricts the transfer and registration of such transfer.

  4. The provisions of Companies Act also govern transfer of shares of banking companies.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: The provision of 10% ceiling restricts the transfer and registration of such transfer.

In case of non-resident persons, which of the following incomes is/are taxable?

  1. Earned in India only

  2. Earned while outside India only

  3. Earned outside India, when in India only

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Income which is deemed, arised, received or earned in India by a non-resident will be taxable. 

RBI can appoint Chairman of a bank

(a) if the office is lying vacant and not filled immediately (b) if in the opinion of RBI, such vacant position is to be against interest of the banking company (c) and such appointment shall be for a maximum period of 5 years (d) and there is provision for re-appointment after the initial period

  1. (a) to (d) all correct

  2. (a), (b) and (d) are correct

  3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct

  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Power of Reserve Bank to appoint chairman of the Board of Directors appointed on a whole-time basis or a managing director of a banking company: Where the office of a banking company is vacant, the Reserve Bank may, if it is of opinion that the continuation of such vacancy is likely to adversely affect the interests of the banking company, appoint a person eligible under sub-section (4) of section 10B to be so appointed, to be the chairman of the Board of directors appointed on a whole-time basis.

 

In the context of capital of a bank,

(a) the authorized capital means the maximum limit of share capital which the bank is authorized to have under its memorandum (b) the amount of share capital which is subscribed and received is called paid up capital (c) the amount of share capital which is issued and paid up is called subscribed capital

  1. (a) to (c) all correct

  2. (a) and (b) only are correct

  3. (a) and (c) only are correct

  4. (b) and (c) only are correct


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

“Authorised capital” or “nominal capital” means such capital as is authorised by the memorandum of a company to be the maximum amount of share capital of the company. 

“Paid-up share capital” or “share capital paid-up” means such aggregate amount of money credited as paid-up as is equivalent to the amount received as paid-up in respect of shares issued and also includes any amount credited as paid-up in respect of shares of the company, but does not include any other amount received in respect of such shares, by whatever name called. 

Banks are required to deposit the amount of TDS (sale of movable asset), in the govt. account

  1. within one month from date of deduction

  2. within 7 days from date of deduction

  3. within 7 days from close of the month, during which deduction is made

  4. within one month from close of the month, during which deduction is made


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The income tax department has extended the time limit for depositing TDS on sale of property. Such TDS can now be deposited within 30 days from the end of the month in which it was deducted. So, if you have deducted TDS on property on 10th August, 2016, you can deposit it by 30th September. 

Under Sale of Goods Act, if the sale is by sample, which of the following implied conditions is not correct?

  1. Bulk shall correspond with the sample in the quality.

  2. Buyer shall have an opportunity to compare the bulk with the sample.

  3. Goods shall be free from any defect, rendering them un-merchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample.

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A contract of sale or lease is a contract for sale or lease by sample if there is a term in the contract, express or implied, to that effect. In a contract for sale or lease by sample, (a) there is an implied condition that the bulk must correspond with the sample in quality, (b) there is an implied condition that the buyer or lessee must have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample, and (c) there is an implied condition that the goods must be free from any defect rendering them unmerchantable that would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample.

Thus, all are true. Therefore, option 4 is the correct answer.   

While issuing a banking license for a foreign bank, RBI, in addition to usual consideration, takes into account

(a) whether the business will be carried by the company in public interest (b) whether the law of the country where the bank originated discriminates against Indian banks (c) whether the company complies with provisions of BR Act, as applicable to foreign companies

  1. (a) to (c) all

  2. (a) and (b) only

  3. (b) and (c) only

  4. (a) and (c) only


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Procedurely, foreign banks are required to apply to RBI for opening their branches in India. Foreign banks’ application for opening their maiden branch is considered under the provisions of Sec 22 of the BR Act, 1949. Before granting any licence under this section, the general character of the proposed management of the proposed bank will be in public interest or the interest of its depositors. RBI may require to be satisfied that the Government or the law of the country in which it is incorporated does not discriminate in any way against banks from India.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. Coop Bank operating in more than one state is registered under Multi-State Coop Societies Act.

  2. Govt. can exempt a bank from provisions of Banking Regulation Act, on its own.

  3. The company matters relating to a banking company are regulated by an authority under the Companies Act.

  4. Banks undertake trading in shares subject to regulation by SEBI.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Govt. can exempt a bank from provisions of Banking Regulation Act, on its own.

RBI cannot give directions to banks for loans and advances in respect of which of the following?

  1. Purpose of which the loan can be allowed

  2. Margin to be maintained for secured advances

  3. Maximum amount of loan that may be sanctioned to one company, firm or association of persons

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: None of the above

If a security is in possession of a bank, it can be sold by the bank

  1. by filing a suit under SARFAESI Act

  2. by giving 60-day notice under provisions of SARFAESI Act

  3. by giving reasonable time notice under provisions of Indian Contract Act

  4. under reasons of SARFAESI Act or Indian Contract Act, at the discretion of the bank


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The sale of the securities by the pawnee bank without giving reasonable notice to the pawner is bad and not binding on him. What Section 176 contemplates is not merely a notice but a reasonable notice, of intended sale of the security by the creditor within a certain date so as to afford an opportunity to the debtor to pay up the amount within the time mentioned in the notice.

Which of the following regarding return of service tax is/are correct?

  1. Return is to be submitted on half yearly basis on Form ST-3.

  2. Return is to be submitted on quarterly basis on Form ST-5.

  3. Return is to be submitted on half yearly for March and December.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

ST-3 Return is required to be filed twice in a financial year ± half yearly. Other options are not true.

Banks are required to transfer a part of their profits to a Reserve Fund

(a) u/s 17-1 of B R Act (b) and the amount is to be 20% of such profits (c) after payment of dividend (d) and commercial banks operating in India should transfer not less than 25 per cent of the ‘net profit’

  1. (a) to (d) all

  2. (a), (b) and (c) only

  3. (a), (b) and (d) only

  4. (b), (c) and (d) only


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In terms of section 17 (1) and 11 (1)(b) (ii) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, banks are required to transfer, out of the balance of profit as disclosed in the profit and loss account, a sum equivalent to not less than 20 per cent of such profit to Reserve Fund. This provision is a minimum requirement.  Considering the imperative need for augmenting the reserves, it was advised vide circular DBOD.No.BP.BC.24/21.04.018/ 2000-2001 dated September 23, 2000 that all scheduled commercial banks operating in India (including foreign banks) should transfer not less than 25 per cent of the ‘net profit’ (before appropriations) to the Reserve Fund with effect from the year ending 31 March, 2001. 

A banking company can amalgamate with another banking company of its own, called ______ amalgamation. Central Govt. can also order amalgamation of two banking companies u/s 396 of ____, in consultation with ____.

  1. voluntary, RBI Act, SEBI

  2. voluntary, Companies Act, RBI

  3. voluntary, RBI Act, RBI

  4. voluntary, Companies Act, SEBI


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Amalgamation of banks: Voluntary Amalgamation: A banking company may be amalgamated with another banking company.

Amalgamation by Govt: After Consultation with RBI, Central Govt. is empowered to order amalgamation of two banking companies (u/s 396 of Companies Act). 

As per Sale of Goods Act, the ______ of the seller is terminated when the buyer gets possession of the goods.

  1. warranty

  2. condition

  3. lien

  4. agreement


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The unpaid seller of goods loses his lien thereon — (a) when he delivers the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer without reserving the right of disposal of the goods; (b) when the buyer or his agent lawfully obtains possession of the goods; (c) by waiver thereof.

A Lok Adalt has jurisdiction

  1. to decide a case as per its own judgement

  2. to determine and arrive at a compromise or settlement

  3. to decide a case as per its own judgement based on evidence produced before it

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A Lok Adalt shall have jurisdiction to determine and to arrive at a compromise or settlement between the parties to a dispute in respect of - (a) any case pending before; or (b) any matter which is falling within the jurisdiction of, and is not brought before, any court for which the Lok Adalt is organised.

Which of the following provisions of SARFAESI Act were amended in the year 2004 after the judgement of Supreme Court in Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India and others?

  1. Sec 17(2), relating to issue of possession notice of 60 days

  2. Sec 13(2), relating to issue of possession notice of 60 days

  3. Sec 17(2), relating to deposit of 75% amount by borrower before approaching DRT

  4. Sec 13(2), relating to deposit of 75% amount by borrower before approaching DRT


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

When the vires of the SARFAESI Act was challenged, the Supreme Court in Mardia Chemicals Ltd. vs. Union of India, (2004) 4 SCC 311 has upheld the validity of the SARFAESI Act, except Section 17(2) of the SARFAESI Act which required depositing of 75% of the amount claimed before entertaining an appeal under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act.

Central Govt. can make rules for preservation of records/books u/s ______ of BR Act. RBI can make rules u/s ______ of BR Act and banks can return the paid instruments to customers u/s ________ of BR Act.

  1. 45Z, 35, 45Y

  2. 45Y, 35A, 45Z

  3. 21A, 35A, 51Z

  4. 21A, 35A, 45Z


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 45Y of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (10 of 1949), the Central Government, after consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, hereby makes the following rules, namely: Every banking company shall preserve, in good order, its books, accounts and other documents, relating to a period of not less than five years immediately preceding the current calendar year.

Reserve Bank may, having regard to the factors specified in sub-section (1) of section 35A, by an order in writing, direct any banking company to preserve any of the books, accounts or other documents mentioned in those rules, for a period longer than the period specified for their preservation, in the said rules.

45-ZC states - Nomination for return of articles kept in safe custody with banking cornpany - (1) Where any person leaves any article in safe custody with a banking company such person may nominate, in the prescribed manner, one person to whom in the event of the death of the person leaving the articles in safe custody, such article may be returned by the banking company.

 

Which of the following pairs does not match?

  1. A corresponding new bank established under Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act 1970 - State Bank

  2. A principal coop bank in a distt. - Central Coop Bank

  3. A coop society, the primary objective of which is to finance its members – coop credit society

  4. Bank which promotes an RRB - sponsor bank


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

"Corresponding new bank" means a corresponding new bank constituted under Sec 3 of the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act. Thus, it is under Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Under provision of SBI Act, 1955, SBI is managed by

(a) Board consisting of Chairman, Vice Chairman, maximum two Mg. Directors etc. (b) Chairman and Mg. Director are appointed for a period not exceeding 5 years (c) Local Boards are set up where the bank has Local HO (d) Local Boards consists of Chairman and other elected and nominated members

  1. (a) to (d) are correct

  2. (a) to (c) only are correct

  3. (b), (c) and (d) are correct

  4. (a), (c) and (d) are correct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under provisions of SBI Act 1955, SBI is managed by - The Central Board and it should consist of the following, namely: (a) a chairman and a vice-chairman to be appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank The chairman and the vice-chairman and each managing director shall hold office for such term, not exceeding five years, as the Central Government may fix when appointing them and shall be eligible for reappointment.  A Local Board is constituted for the new local head office, any person who is, at the time of such constitution or holding office as a member of a Local Board for an existing local head office. Local Board consists of Chairman and other elected and nominated members.

A bank has made payment across the counter, of a cheque issued as a crossed cheque and the holder claims damages from the bank. Under such circumstances, the bank is liable

  1. to the drawer of the cheque

  2. to the true owner of the cheque, i.e. holder

  3. to the drawer and also the payee

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bank is always liable to the person whomsoever the cheque is favourable to, not the bearer. Thus, in the given case, the bank is liable to true owner of the cheque. 

Under provisions of SARFAESI Act, the security receipt evidences

  1. undivided right or interest of the purchaser, in the security

  2. independent right or interest of the purchaser, in the security

  3. exclusive right or interest of the purchaser, in the security

  4. exclusive right or interest of the seller, in the security


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The securitisation involves two stages. In the first stage, it is acquisition of financial assets and undivided interest therein. Second stage is issue of security receipts in favor of investors for the purpose of raising money from investors. Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

A bank makes payment of two cheques on which, later it is found that the signatures of the drawer are forged. The first account is that of a company and the 2nd account is a joint account in which signatures of one of the account holders are real.

  1. Bank is liable for the first cheque and for half the amount in the 2nd case.

  2. Bank is liable for both the cheques.

  3. Bank is liable for the 1st cheque and not liable for the 2nd cheque.

  4. Bank is not liable for any of the cheque, if payment is in due course.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The National Commission held that the bank couldn't escape responsibility in comparing signatures. Thus, in both the given cases, the bank is liable for both the cheques.

Under FEMA, the term authorized person means

  1. authorized dealers, money changers and all banks

  2. authorized dealers and all banks

  3. authorized dealers and money changers

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Sec 2 (c) of FEMA 1999 define Authorised Persons means as Authorised Dealer, Money Changer, Offshore Banking Unit or any other person authorised u/s 10 (1) to deal in Foreign Exchange or Foreign Securities.

Right to information available to Indian citizens under RTI Act 2005 does not include which of the following rights?

  1. Inspection of documents of records

  2. Taking notes of documents

  3. Taking certified samples of the material

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

RTI Act 2005 is to provide for setting out the practical regime of right to information for citizens to secure access to information under the control of public authorities, in order to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority, the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. All the mentioned are true in respect to the act. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The Board of Directors of a company cannot pass a valid resolution unless it is passed in a meeting in respect of which of the following?

  1. Issues of debentures

  2. Investment of funds of the company

  3. Borrowing or lending of money

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: None of the above

Under RTI Act 2005, information can be obtained by

  1. any person in India including artificial persons

  2. companies, firms, corporations etc.

  3. Indian citizens

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Banks can issue notice for enforcement of security interest under SARFAESI Act when

  1. there is default by borrower and security is in possession of the bank

  2. the account is NPA and security is in possession of the bank

  3. the account is suit filed and security is in possession of the bank

  4. the account is suit filed and security is in possession of the borrower


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Banks can issue notice for enforcement of security interest under SARFAESI Act when the account is NPA and security is in possession of the bank. The SARFAESI Act, 2002 gives powers of “seize and desist” to banks. Banks can give a notice in writing to the defaulting borrower requiring it to discharge its liabilities within 60 days. If the borrower fails to comply with the notice, the Bank may take recourse to one or more of the following measures: Take possession of the security for the loan Sale or lease or assign the right over the security Manage the same or appoint any person to manage the same 

In a limited liability partnership, the rights and obligations of the partners are as per

  1. Certificate of Incorporation

  2. Schedule II to the LLP Act

  3. Agreement between Partners Act

  4. Agreement between partners and if there is no such agreement, then as per Schedule I to the LLP Act


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The mutual rights and duties of the partners and the mutual rights and duties of the LLP and its partners shall be determined on the basis of LLP agreement between the partners, or between the limited liability partnership and its partners. If there is no agreement as to any matter, the mutual rights and duties of the partners and the mutual rights and duties of the LLP and its partners shall be determined by the provisions relating to that matter as set out in the First Schedule.

Which of the following characteristics of a company is not true?

  1. Liability of the shareholders is to the extent of a nominal value of the shares held by them.

  2. A company is a group of shareholders and is not different from them.

  3. Company is created through a legal process called incorporation which is completed by issue of Certificate of Incorporation by RoC.

  4. A company, being legal person, has all the rights and obligation to sue or to be sued.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A company has a distinct legal entity independent of its mem­bers. It can own property, make contracts and file suits in its own name. Shareholders are not the joint owners of the company's property. A shareholder cannot be held liable for the acts of the company. Similarly, members of the company are not its agents.

A trust is governed by

(a) Trust Act 1882, if it is a private trust (b) Public Trust Act, if it is a public trust (c) Waqf Act if it is a Muslim trust

  1. (a) to (c) are correct

  2. (b) and (c) are correct

  3. (a) and (c) are correct

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Trusts and charitable institutions registered under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882. Public Trust Act, if it is a public trust. Those engaged in pure religious and charitable work registered under the Religious Endowments Act, 1863; the Charitable and Religious Trusts Act, 1920; the Waqf Act, 1995 and similar other State Acts. As a legal transaction, the Waqif (settler) appoints himself or another trustworthy person as Mutawalli (manager) in an endowment deed (Waqfnamah) to administer the Waqf (charitable trust).

If information does not relate his organization, the Central Assistant public information officer has to forward the request for information to the concerned public authority within

  1. 5 days

  2. 1 week

  3. 21 days

  4. 30 days


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall, within five days from the receipt of the request, give a written notice to such third party of the request.

In pledge, the possession of goods is with the creditor (pawnee) which can be

(a) actual – where the goods are actually in possession with the creditor (b) symbolic – where the pawnor hands over the control of the goods to the pawnee without actual delivery (c) trust receipt – where the goods are released to the pawnor without payment, by the pawnee on the basis of an undertaking

  1. Only (a) and (c) are correct

  2. Only (b) and (c) are correct

  3. Only (a) is correct

  4. All (a) to (c) are correct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In the case of pledge, the possession of pledged goods will be passed on to the pawnee from the pawnor, and the possession of moveables will be transferred to the pawnee and he will be in possession and the pawnor will not be able to enjoy the same as the possession has already been parted with the goods. So, pledge deals with transfer of possession of moveable property to the creditor as security to the loan advanced.

If a banking company fails to ensure compliance of obligations under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002, the director can impose a fine of

  1. min Rs. 1000 and max Rs. 1 lac

  2. min Rs. 5000 and max Rs. 2 lac

  3. min Rs. 50000 and max Rs. 5 lac

  4. min Rs. 10000 and max Rs. 1 lac


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

If the Director, in the course of any inquiry, finds that a reporting entity or its designated director on the Board or any of its employees has failed to comply with the obligations, then, without prejudice to any other action that may be taken under any other provisions of this Act, he may - by an order, levy a fine on such reporting entity or its designated director on the Board or any of its employees, which shall not be less than ten thousand rupees but may extend to one lakh rupees for each failure.

If a person commits offence under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, he shall be liable for fine

  1. up to Rs. 10 lac

  2. up to Rs. 5 lac

  3. up to Rs. 2 lac

  4. up to Rs. 1 lac


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Persons found guilty of an offence of Money Laundering are punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than three years but may extend up to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine up to Rs. 5 lac (Section 4 of the Act).

Which of the following is the most appropriate difference between a deferred payment guarantee and a term loan?

  1. Term loan is sanctioned for purchase of fixed assets and DPG for purchase of current assets.

  2. TL is a fund based loan and DPG is a semi-fund based loan.

  3. In TL, funds outlay is immediate but in DPG, it is contingent.

  4. In TL, appraisal is more detailed than the appraisal of DPG proposal.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A term loan is a loan from a bank for a specific amount that has a specified repayment schedule and a fixed or floating interest rate. Thus, it is fund based. However, DPG is a payment guarantee issued to your exporter for deferred or timely payment of the goods, and corresponding interest. ICBC undertakes to pay your exporter in the event you are unable to pay the principal and interest as scheduled in the contract. Thus, that depends on situation, i.e. contingent.

The mortgage in which the mortgager transfers the possession to the mortgagee is called ______. In such mortgage, (there is)/(there is no), personal liability of the mortgager.

  1. English mortgage, there is

  2. mortgage by conditional sale, there is no

  3. simple mortgage, there is no

  4. usufructuary mortgage, there is no


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Usufructuary mortgage is where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property. In such mortgage, there is no personal liability of the mortgager.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Certificate of incorporation is required by a public company only and not by a private company.

  2. Certificate of commencement of business is conclusive proof of existence of a company.

  3. Certificate of incorporation is conclusive proof of existence of a company.

  4. Certificate of commencement of business is required by a private company only.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 35 of the Companies Act, 1956 deals with the conclusiveness of the certificate of incorporation. It provides that “A certificate of incorporation given by the Registrar in respect of any association shall be conclusive evidence that all the requirements of this Act have been complied with in respect of registration and matters precedent and incidental thereto, and that the association is a company authorised to be registered and duly registered under this Act.”

Under FEMA 1999, there is provision of appeal. The first such appeal can be made to

  1. Director (Appeals)

  2. Appellate Tribunal

  3. High Court

  4. Supreme Court


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority may prefer an appeal to the Special Director (Appeals).

A public company may be a company limited by

(a) shares (b) guarantee (c) both guarantee and share capital

  1. (a) only

  2. (b) only

  3. (a) and (c) only

  4. (a), (b) and (c)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A public company may be a company limited by shares or company limited by guarantee with or without share capital. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer. 

A mortgage when created through an instrument in writing (called mortgage deed) is required to be registered with _____ within _____ months, if the value of mortgage money is Rs.______.

  1. Registrar of Firms, 4 months, 100 or more

  2. Registrar of Assurances, 4 months, 100 or more

  3. Registrar of Companies, 34 months, 100 or more

  4. Registrar of Assurances, 3 months, 100 or more


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A mortgage when created through an instrument in writing (called mortgage deed) is required to be registered with Registrar of Assurances within 4 months, if the value of mortgage money is Rs. 100 or more. Registration is compulsory for other non-testamentary instruments which purport or operate to create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish, whether in present or in future, any right, title or interest, whether vested or contingent, of the value of one hundred rupees, and upwards, to or in immovable property.  

A bank issued an LC, which is to expire on around June 30. Its expiry date falls on

  1. 10th July or 20th June

  2. (+) or (-) 5 calendar days

  3. (+) or (-) 10 calendar days

  4. Such LC is not valid


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: (+) or (-) 5 calendar days

The offences that are compoundable under any law, cannot be brought within the purview of which of the following?

  1. Lok Adalt

  2. DRT

  3. Civil Court

  4. High Court


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The offences which are compoundable under any Law cannot be brought within the purview of the Lok Adalt. This means that the Lok Adalt has no authority of its own to pass judgements.

Which of the following parties in a bill of exchange do not match?

  1. Maker - the debtor who is to make the payment

  2. Drawer - who makes the bill of exchange and orders the drawee to make payment

  3. Payee - the person who is to obtain payment as per order of the drawer

  4. Drawee - the debtor, liable on the bill to pay


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to the bill of exchange, the drawee is to make the payment. Thus, 1 does not state the truth.   

Which of these features of limited liability partnership is not correct as per LLP Act 2008?

  1. LLP is a separate legal entity.

  2. LLP is separate from its partners.

  3. LLP is taxed as a partnership.

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Some of the key features of LLPs are: They are a separate legal entity from their members. They have the benefit of limited liability for their members. They are taxed as a partnership. Thus, all the mentioned are the features of limited liability partnership. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

A guarantee which is issued by a bank, guaranteeing the timely payment of installment to the supplier, by the applicant (borrower), for the machinery purchased on a long term credit from the supplier, is called

  1. standby guarantee

  2. performance guarantee

  3. deferred payment guarantee

  4. statutory guarantee


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Deferred Payment Guarantee is a guarantee for a payment which has been deferred or postponed. The necessity to issue deferred payment guarantee arises in case of purchase of capital goods like machinery. 

A person residing in India

  1. can own foreign currency or immovable property if it was held when he was resident outside India

  2. can transfer foreign currency or immovable property if it was held when he was resident outside India

  3. can invest in foreign currency or immovable property if it was held when he was resident outside India

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All the given options are true for a person residing in India or NRI, who is residing in India but was not previously.

Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of sale of goods?

  1. A contract of sale can be absolute.

  2. A contract of sale can be conditional.

  3. In absolute contract, there are no conditions to be fulfilled by the seller or buyer.

  4. In a conditional contract, the goods are transferred later but the sale takes place beforehand.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Conditional contract is an agreement that is enforceable only if another agreement is performed or if another specific condition is satisfied. A conditional contract is also termed as hypothetical contract.

In case of mortgage, (a) the limitation period against the mortgager for personal liability is _____ years (b) against the mortgaged property, it is ______ years and (c) for foreclosure, it is _____ years.

  1. 12, 12, 30

  2. 3, 12, 30

  3. 12, 12, 12

  4. 3, 12, 12


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: 3, 12, 30

Which of the following documents are of title to goods?

(a) bill of lading (b) warehouse receipt (c) delivery order (d) airway bill

  1. (a) to (d) all

  2. (a) to (c) only

  3. (a), (c) and (d) only

  4. (b), (c) and (d) only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bill of lading - a detailed list of a ship's cargo in the form of a receipt given by the master of the ship to the person consigning the goods. A warehouse receipt is a document that provides proof of ownership of commodities (e.g. bars of copper) that are stored in a warehouse, vault, or depository for safekeeping. A Delivery Order (abbreviated D/O) is a document from a Consignee, or an owner or his agent of freight Carrier which orders the release of the transportation of cargo to another party.

An airway bill (AWB) or air consignment note is a receipt issued by an international airline for goods and an evidence of the contract of carriage, but it is not a document of title to the goods. Hence, the airway bill is non-negotiable.

In case of creation of equitable mortgage, the property which is to be equitably mortgaged, must be located in

  1. Notified towns only

  2. Chennai, Mumbai or Kolkata only

  3. Any place

  4. Either 1 or 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A mortgage in which the lender is secured by taking possession of all the original title documents of the property that serves as security for the mortgage, gives the mortgagee the right to foreclose on the property, sell it, or appoint a receiver in case of nonpayment and it can be at any place.

(a) A mortgage deed is a document in which the mortgagor transfers an interest in real estate to a mortgagee. (b) Debentures provide voting rights to the holders of the debentures in general meetings. (c) Assignee of the life policy can not sue in his own name. (d) Borrowers can pledge the documents of title to goods.

  1. (a) to (d) are correct

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct

  3. (a), (c) and (d) are correct

  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A mortgage deed is a document in which the mortgagor transfers an interest in real estate to a mortgagee for the purpose of providing a mortgage loan. The mortgage deed is the evidence of the interest transferred to the mortgage holder. An assignee can sue in his own name if he had complied with the Act (Policies of Assurance Act, 1867) and had obtained on assignment either by endorsement on the policy or by separate instrument. The borrower may pledge the documents of title with the bank and, on the other hand, mange to obtain the delivery of goods on the basis of indemnity bond or some other device. Debentures are generally freely transferable by the debenture holder. Debenture holders have no rights to vote in the company's general meetings of shareholders. Thus, (b) is not correct. 

Which of the following is not a capital account transaction?

  1. An Indian company purchased office space outside India.

  2. Indian Govt. made repayment of instalment of a loan taken from US Govt.

  3. An individual purchased shares on a stock exchange in London.

  4. Export of goods made on a deferred payment basis.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Capital account transaction is defined as a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India, of persons resident in India.

The term ‘security interest’ does not include which of the following, as far as SARFAESI Act is concerned?

  1. Mortgage

  2. Hypothecation

  3. Pledge and Lien

  4. Assignment


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Pledge and Lien

In the process of securitization of NPA accounts, the qualified institutional buyers are eligible to purchase security receipts issued by the secuiritisation company. QIB does not include

  1. financial institution or insurance company

  2. banks or mutual funds

  3. state financial corporations or state industrial development corporations

  4. joint stock companies


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Qualified Institutional Buyer shall mean:

  • Scheduled commercial banks;
  • Mutual funds;
  • Foreign institutional investor registered with SEBI;
  • Multilateral and bilateral development financial institutions;
  • Venture capital funds registered with SEBI;
  • Foreign Venture capital investors registered with SEBI;
  • State Industrial Development Corporations. etc. Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Compared to a public company, a private limited company is at a disadvantage because

(a) it cannot invite public to subscribe to its shares (b) it has to observe restrictions on transfer of its shares because the number of members is limited (c) it has limited growth due to less shareholders (d) it cannot obtain loan from a bank

  1. (a) to (d) are correct

  2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct

  3. (a), (c) and (d) are correct

  4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The following are the disadvantages of private limited company: The shares in a private limited company cannot be sold or transferred to anyone else without the agreement of other shareholders. It has limited growth and restricted number of shareholders. It is not allowed to invite public to subscribe to its shares.

Which of the following has the authority under SARFAESI Act to prescribe income recognition, accounting standards, and provisioning norms for Securitisation or Reconstruction Companies?

  1. RBI

  2. RoC

  3. SEBI

  4. Company Law Board


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Reserve Bank of India has the authority under SARFAESI Act to prescribe income recognition, accounting standards, and provisioning norms for Securitisation or Reconstruction Companies. The provisions of the guidelines and directions shall apply to SC/RC registered with the RBI under Section 3 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002.

What is the function of the public key out of the pair of keys used in an electronic signature?

  1. To create an electronic signature

  2. To verify an electronic signature

  3. To create and verify an electronic signature

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Using a public key is to authenticate that a message originated with a holder of the paired private key; or to encrypt a message with a public key to ensure that only the holder of the paired private key can decrypt it.

When sake of security is made by the creditor under SARFAESI Act, the sale proceeds are to be utilized

(a) first towards costs incidental to preservation and protection of security (b) for dues of the secured creditor (c) surplus to person entitled thereto in accordance with the rights and interests

  1. (a) to (c) all correct

  2. Only (a) and (b) correct

  3. Only (b) and (c) correct

  4. Only (a) and (c) correct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: (a) to (c) all correct

In a securitization transaction, which of the following documents are required?

(a) offer document (b) debenture (c) agreement (d) security receipt (e) discharge certificate by the NPA selling bank

  1. Only (a) to (d)

  2. Only (b) to (d)

  3. Only (c) to (e)

  4. (a) to (e) all


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Securitization is the process of pooling various types of debt - mortgages, car loans, or credit card debt, for example - and packaging that debt as bonds, pass-through securities, or collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), which are sold to investors. In a securitization transaction, all the given documents, but (e), are required. Thus, (1) is the correct answer.

After receipt of notice of possession from the bank, if the borrower transfers, other than in normal course of business, any of his assets without consent of the bank, what is the punishment under SARFAESI Act?

  1. There is punishment in the form of fine only.

  2. There is punishment in the form of imprisonment up to 2 years.

  3. The punishment can be in the form of the fine and imprisonment up to 1 year or both.

  4. There is no provision of any punishment.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

If any person contravenes or attempts to contravene or abets the contravention of the provisions of this Act or of any rules made thereunder, he shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.

When a request for information is rejected by Public Information Officer under Right to Information Act, he is not required to communicate to the requester

  1. the reasons for rejection

  2. the period within which an appeal can be preferred

  3. the particulars of appellate authority

  4. an apology for not providing information


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Where a request has been rejected under sub-section (1), the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall communicate to the person making the request —

(i)   the reasons for such rejection; (ii)  the period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred; and (iii) the particulars of the appellate authority.

The provisions of SARFAESI Act are applicable in which of the following transactions?

  1. A lien or pledge on any goods as per Indian Contract Act

  2. Security interest created on agricultural land

  3. Loan amount above Rs. 1 lac

  4. Balance amount less than 20% of the principal amount and interest


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The provisions of this Act are applicable only for NPA loans with outstanding above Rs. 1.00 lac. NPA loan accounts where the amount is less than 20% of the principal and interest are not eligible to be dealt with under this Act.

As per Rules under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002, the banks are not required to obtain which the following documents while opening an account of a company?

  1. Certificate of Incorporation

  2. Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association

  3. Board resolution and official valid document in respect of the person operating the account

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As per Rules under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002, the banks are required to obtain the following documents:

(i)   Certificate of incorporation and Memorandum and Articles of Association (ii)  Resolution of the Board of Directors to open an account and identification of those who have authority to operate the account (iii) Power of Attorney granted to its managers, officers or employees to transact business on its behalf (iv) Copy of PAN allotment letter (v)  Copy of the telephone bill

Thus, all the given documents are important. 

Under provisions of Right to Information Act, where the information is supplied by a 3rd party and is treated as confidential by that 3rd party and this information is sought by any person, the Public Information Officer shall give a notice within ____ from date of receipt of such request, to such 3rd party about his intention to disclose the information.

  1. 5 days

  2. 1 week

  3. 10 days

  4. No such notice is required


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Where a Central Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, intends to disclose any information or record, or part thereof on a request made under this Act, which relates to or has been supplied by a third party and has been treated as confidential by that third party, the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall, within five days from the receipt of the request, give a written notice to such third party of the request and of the fact that the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, intends to disclose the information or record.

The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body and the selected candidates are appointed on tenure basis, i.e. for a period of ______ from the date they enter upon the office of the Tribunal or till they attain the age of_________, whichever is earlier.

  1. 5 years, 62 years

  2. 6 years, 62 years

  3. 3 years, 62 years

  4. 5 years, 70 years


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body set up under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993. The selected candidates will be appointed on tenure basis for a period of five years from the date they enter upon the office of the Tribunal or till they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.

A complaint that is made to Ombudsman should not relate to an issue

(a) already settled by the Ombudsman (b) pending with a court (c) already decided by a court (d) where limitation period has expired

  1. (a), (b) and (c) only

  2. (b), (c) and (d) only

  3. (a), (c) and (d) only

  4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

One's complaint will not be considered if:

  • One has not approached his bank for redressal of his grievance first.
  • The subject matter of the complaint is pending for disposal / has already been dealt with at any other forum like court of law, consumer court etc.
  • Frivolous or vexatious
  • The institution complained against is not covered under the scheme.
  • The subject matter of the complaint is not within the ambit of the Banking Ombudsman.
  • If the complaint is for the same subject matter that was settled through the office of the Banking Ombudsman in any previous proceedings.

When suit is filed by the bank with DRT, DRT summons the defendant requiring him to show cause within ______ days from _____ as to why the relief prayed for by the bank, should not be granted.

  1. 30, date of summons

  2. 45, receipt of summons

  3. 30, service of summons

  4. 45, date of summons


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under DRT Act 19(4), on receipt of application under sub-section(1) or (2), the Tribunal has to issue summons to the defendant requiring him to show cause within 30 days of the service of summons as to why the relief prayed for should not be granted.

In which of the following mortgages is the property is transferred by the mortgage absolutely with a condition for retransfer by the mortgagee?

  1. Simple mortgage

  2. English mortgage

  3. Equitable mortgage

  4. Usufructuary mortgage


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

English mortgage - The borrower promises to repay the borrowed money on a certain date. The borrower transfers the property to the lender. The lender will re-transfer the property when the money is repaid. The mortgaged property is absolutely transferred to the mortgagee.

When the borrower wants to file an appeal against order of DRT, which of the following is not correct?

  1. He can do so within 45 days of receipt of order by him.

  2. He can do so by depositing 75% of amount of order.

  3. He can do so by filing an appeal with High Court or DRAT.

  4. He can do so without depositing any amount when permitted by DRAT.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests (SARFAESI) Act 2002, an appeal can be filed before the DRAT against orders passed by the DRT.

Which among the following is a correct statement?

  1. DRT jurisdiction for different banks is with reference to the location of HO of the respective bank.

  2. Appeal against DRT order can be made either to DRAT or to High Court.

  3. Where a suit has been filed by one bank in DRT, other bank having interest in the case, can join.

  4. DRT is not a civil court due to which it cannot pass interim orders like attachment or injunction.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Where a suit has been filed by one bank in DRT, other bank having interest in the case, can join.

When a bank is to send a certified copy of bank records to a court, the bank is to give a certificate that should contain all of the following, except that

  1. the entry is true copy

  2. the entry is contained in bank books

  3. the entry was made in ordinary course of business

  4. such record is not in the custody of the bank


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: such record is not in the custody of the bank

Bank B has received a notice from Recovery Officer of DRT attaching the balance lying in current account of XYZ Pvt. Ltd.

  1. The bank will ignore the notice as such authority is not vested with Recovery Officer of DRT.

  2. The bank will inform the Recovery Officer that his order cannot be complied with as he has no such authority.

  3. The bank will follow the order as Recovery Officer can issue such order similar to the one given u/s 226 of Income Tax Act.

  4. The bank will follow the order because the recovery of due amount of some other bank is involved.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section - 226, Income Tax Act, 1961-2014

(3) (i) The 11[Assessing] Officer 12 [or Tax Recovery Officer] may, at any time or from time to time, by notice in writing require any person from whom money is due or may become due to the assessee or any person who holds or may subsequently hold money, for or on account of the assessee to pay to the Assessing Officer or Tax Recovery Officer either forthwith upon the money becoming due or being held or at or within the time specified in the notice (not being before the money becomes due or is held) so much of the money as is sufficient to pay the amount due by the assessee in respect of arrears or the whole of the money when it is equal to or less than that amount.

(iv) Save as otherwise provided in this sub-section, every person to whom a notice is issued under this sub-section shall be bound to comply with such notice, and, in particular, where any such notice is issued to a post office, banking company or an insurer, it shall not be necessary for any pass book, deposit receipt, policy or any other document to be produced for the purpose of any entry, endorsement or the like being made before payment is made, notwithstanding any rule, practice or requirement to the contrary. 

The lease for agricultural and manufacturing purposes is deemed to be a lease from year to year and it can be terminated by giving ______ notice.

  1. 2 month

  2. 3 month

  3. 6 month

  4. 12 month


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals with the duration of leases and states that in the absence of a contract, or local law or usage to the contrary, a lease of immovable property for agricultural or manufacturing purposes shall be deemed to be a lease from year to year, terminable on the part of either lessor or lessee, by six month notice and a lease of immovable property for any other purpose shall be deemed to be lease from month to month, terminable, on the part of either lessor or lessee by 15 day notice.

Which of these functions of public and private keys is correct?

  1. Private key verifies the digital signatures and public key creates the digital signature.

  2. Public key verifies the digital signatures and private key creates the digital signature.

  3. Private key and public key are used to verify the digital signatures.

  4. Private key and public key are used to create the digital signatures.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A digital signature in its simplest description is a hash of the data that is subsequently encrypted with the signer's private key. Since that is something only the signer has, that is where the trust comes from. EVERYONE has access to the signer's public key. So, to validate a digital signature, the recipient (1) calculates a hash of the same data, (2) decrypts the digital signature using the sender's PUBLIC key, and (3) compares the 2 hash values. If they match, the signature is considered valid. If they don't match, it either means that a different key was used to sign it, or that the data has been altered. Thus, public key helps in verification. The private key is used to encrypt the hash. The encrypted hash along with other information, such as the hashing algorithm, is the digital signature. Thus, it helps in creating the electronic signature.

An agreement that cannot be enforceable by law is called

  1. quasi-agreement

  2. void agreement

  3. voidable agreement

  4. immoral agreement


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Void contract is an agreement not enforceable by law. A void contract is a contract which ceases to be enforceable by law. A contract when originally entered into may be valid and binding on the parties. It may subsequently become void.

Distt. Forum is headed by a person who is or has been qualified to be a _____ Judge. The other ____ members of not less than _____.

  1. Distt, 3, 35 years

  2. Distt, 3, 27 years

  3. Distt, 2, 35 years

  4. High Court, 3, 35 years


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

According to sub-section (1) of Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act – (a) the President of the Forum should be a person who is, or has been, or is qualified to be a District Judge; (b) two other members, one of whom shall be a woman, who shall have the following qualifications, namely: (i) be not less than 35 years of age, (ii) possess a bachelor’s degree from a recognized university, (iii) be persons of ability, integrity and standing.

In the execution of mortgage decree, the decree holder can bring the mortgaged properties to sale

  1. without first seeking an order of attachment of court

  2. after seeking an order of attachment of court

  3. after obtaining an order from the court

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under enforcement of mortgages through court, while executing the mortgage decree, the decree-holder can bring the properties mortgaged to sale without first seeking an order of attachment from the court.

A contract is valid only when there is valid consideration, but in case of contract of guarantee, no consideration passes between the bank and the guarantee. The contract is still valid because

  1. guarantor has signed the contract with his free will

  2. guarantor is a major person and contract with a major person is valid

  3. anything done for the benefit of the borrower is a sufficient consideration for the guarantor

  4. guarantor’s liability is secondary (as borrower is primarily liable) and hence, no consideration is required


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Section 127 of Contract Act 1872: Consideration for Guarantee: Anything done, or any promise made, for the benefit of the principal debtor, may be a sufficient consideration to the surety for giving the guarantee. Your remuneration may be a part of consideration for guarantee.

X sold certain goods to Y for which he is yet to be paid. As long as the payment is not made by Y,

(a) X has lien on the goods for the price of the goods the possession of which is with X (b) if Y becomes insolvent, X has to stop the goods in transit if X has parted with the possession (c) X has right of re-sale if goods are in the possession of X

  1. (a) and (b) only

  2. (b) and (c) only

  3. (a) and (c) only

  4. (a) to (c) all


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

X can take any of the given actions as X is yet to be paid by Y. Thus, all the actions (according to X) are possible. 

Which of the following is true?

  1. Bailor is the person who receives the goods as a security for the loan.

  2. When documents are delivered by a customer for safe custody to the bank and the bank takes due care, but there is loss to documents, the bank is liable to the customer.

  3. If the bailor has knowledge about the defect in the goods due to which bailee suffers loss, the bailor is liable.

  4. Bailee can use the goods as he likes and is not liable for damages for such use.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bailor will not be liable for the defects which are not within his knowledge. However, if the bailor is aware about the defect, then he is liable to bailee. The bailor must disclose to the bailee any faults or defects in the goods. 

As a part of corporate governance, the concept of ‘fit and proper’ relates to which of the following aspects?

  1. Appointment of directors of banks

  2. Management of banks

  3. While deciding Board of Directors

  4. Staff of banks


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

According to the Reserve Bank, 'fit and proper' is for the status of the directors nominated by the Government or elected by the shareholders to the Boards of the Public Sector Banks.

Under Sale of Goods Act, the term ‘caveat emptor’ means

  1. an instruction to the buyer to buy only if he likes

  2. a condition binding the buyer and seller to agree to certain conditions of the sale

  3. a warning for the sale buyer to be cautious while buying

  4. a right of the seller, whether to sell the goods or not


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

It is the principle that the buyer alone is responsible for checking the quality and suitability of goods before a purchase is made.

A partnership is a contract with all of the following features, except that the

  1. contract can be oral contract also

  2. contract is to carry any type of business, lawful or otherwise

  3. business is to be carried to make profits and share profits

  4. mutual relationship between partners is of agency


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under partnership contract, any business should be in accordance to the laws. The owners are all personally liable for any legal actions and debts the company may face, unless otherwise provided by law or in the agreement. 

X, the natural guardian of M, the minor, wants to mortgage the property in the name of M to secure a loan for the benefit of the minor.

  1. The property in the name of M cannot be mortgaged.

  2. The property in the name of M can be mortgaged if the loan is for benefit of the minor.

  3. The property in the name of M can be mortgaged if the loan is for benefit of the minor with permission of court only.

  4. The property in the name of M can be mortgaged if the loan is for benefit of the minor with permission of Registrar of Assurances.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

According to Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, natural guardian of a Hindu minor cannot mortgage or charge any part of the property of the minor without the permission of the court.

A contract without ________ is void.

  1. cash

  2. consideration

  3. indemnity

  4. guarantee


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Agreement without consideration is void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.

The provisions in respect of enhancing the borrowing powers of the Board of a public limited company or subsidiary of a public limited company, by the shareholders, are given in section _____ of the Companies Act 2013.

  1. 125

  2. 163

  3. 180

  4. 194


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The borrowing powers of the Board of a public limited company are defined under section 180 ("Restrictions on powers of Board") of the Companies Act 2013.

As per SEBI guidelines, the minimum percentage of independent directors out of total, should be ______ of a _______.

  1. 25%, public company

  2. 50%, public company

  3. 50%, listed company

  4. 25%, listed company


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

As per Clause 49, for a company with an Executive Chairman, at least 50 per cent of the board should comprise independent directors in the listed company.

A guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is known as a __________ guarantee.

  1. Continuing

  2. Invalid

  3. Irrevocable

  4. General


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A Guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is called a continuing guarantee. A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions, by notice to the creditor. 

Tax assessed by AO shall be paid within ________ days.

  1. 30

  2. 45

  3. 60

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Tax assessed by the Assessing Officer shall be paid within 30 days.

_________ means voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another.

  1. Delivery

  2. Lien

  3. Indemnity

  4. Suit


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

"Delivery" means voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another. 

If the stipulation agreed to between the parties is essential to the main purpose of the contract, then such a stipulation is known as a/an ___________.

  1. condition

  2. warranty

  3. implied condition

  4. guarantee


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated.

If the sale of goods is by __________, there is an implied condition that the goods shall correspond with the description.

  1. description

  2. sample

  3. oral agreement

  4. written contract


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Where there is a contract for the sale of goods by description, there is an implied condition that the goods shall correspond with the description and if the sale is by sample as well as by description, it is not sufficient that the bulk of the goods corresponds with the sample if the goods do not also correspond with the description.

Your branch is approached by a public limited company to open a current account in their name. For the purpose of opening the account, they submit the Memorandum and Articles of Association and other papers along with a resolution passed by the Board of the company in a duly held meeting. It is observed from the Articles of Association that the Board of the company should have five directors for the purpose of business decisions, but the resolution has been passed by 4 directors, as the 5th one is away to UK in connection with a business trip.

  1. Since minimum number of directors is 3 for a public limited company, the account can be opened.

  2. Since majority of the directors were present at the meeting, the account should be opened.

  3. Bank can obtain another resolution and in the mean time open the account to increase its business.

  4. The resolution in its present form is not a proper resolution due to which account cannot be opened.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: The resolution in its present form is not a proper resolution due to which account cannot be opened.

The usual form of contract of agency is by way of a/an _____________.

  1. power of attorney

  2. indemnity bond

  3. guarantee bond

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Agency law refers to the relationship between a person, or “agent”, that acts on behalf of another person, company, or government, usually called the “master” or “principal". This form of agency can be, and often is, enforced by written agreements made through a power of attorney.

In a government company, the government holds at least __________ per cent of the paid-up capital.

  1. 12

  2. 15

  3. 50

  4. 51


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Government companies are the companies where the central govt. or one or more state govt. or the central and the state govt. (jointly) hold, at least 51 per cent of the paid-up capital.

When the ________ is in possession of goods, a lien can be exercised.

  1. seller

  2. buyer

  3. agent of the buyer

  4. carrier


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The unpaid seller’s lien is a possessory lien, i.e. the lien can be exercised as long as the seller remains in possession of the goods. He may exercise his right of lien notwithstanding that he is in possession of the goods as agent or bailee for the buyer.

The maximum number of directors in a public company can be _________.

  1. 3

  2. 7

  3. 12

  4. 15


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The 1956 Act prescribed minimum 2 directors for a private and 3 for a public company to constitute a Board. This criterion has been retained by the new Act, but the maximum limit of directors on the Board has now been raised from 12 to 15.

The minimum number of members required in a public company is __________.

  1. 3

  2. 7

  3. 12

  4. 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Minimum number of members required to form a private company is 2, whereas a public company requires at least 7 members.

In a public limited company, state the maximum and minimum numbers of shareholders.

  1. 50 and 10

  2. No limit and 7

  3. 100 and 2

  4. Any number at the discretion of the company


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In a public limited company, minimum number of shareholders is 7 and there is no limit on maximum number of shareholders.

The Sale of Goods Act was enacted on

  1. 18th July, 1930

  2. 15th March, 1930

  3. 15th July, 1930

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Sales of Goods Act was enacted on 15th March, 1930 and was enforced in July 1930.

Additional directors are appointed by the _________.

  1. Board of Directors

  2. Promoters

  3. Underwriters

  4. Shareholders


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The articles of a company may confer on its Board of Directors the power to appoint any person, other than a person who fails to get appointed as a director in a general meeting, as an additional director at any time who shall hold office up to the date of the next annual general meeting or the last date on which the annual general meeting should have been held, whichever is earlier.

There are ______ parties in a contract of indemnity.

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Indemnity contract includes two parties namely, indemnifier and indemnity holder. The person who is promising to pay compensation is called indemnifier and the person whose loss is compensated is called indemnity holder.

Which among the following is a necessary condition for declaring it a company as a Govt. company under the provisions of Companies Act 1956?

  1. It should be fully owned by the Central Govt.

  2. It should be fully owned by the Central and State Govt.

  3. At least 50% of the paid up capital should be owned by the Govt.

  4. At least 51% of the paid up capital should be owned by the Govt.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Government companies, under the provisions of Companies Act 1956, are the companies where the Central Govt. or one or more State Govt. or the Central and the State Govt. (jointly) hold, at least 51 per cent of the paid-up capital.

Casual vacancies in the board of directors are filled in by the _________.

  1. Board of Directors

  2. Promoters

  3. Underwriters

  4. Shareholders


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In the case of a public company, if the office of any director appointed by the company in general meeting is vacated before his term of office expires in the normal course, the resulting casual vacancy may, in default of and subject to any regulations in the articles of the company, be filled by the Board of Directors at a meeting of the Board.

A private company should have a minimum paid-up capital or Rupees _________.

  1. Five Crore

  2. Five Lakh

  3. One Crore

  4. One Lakh


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

According to the Companies Act, 2013, every company has to give a declaration to the Registrar of Companies (RoC), stating its paid-up capital is not less than Rs. 5 lakh in the case of public companies (the listed ones, as well as those that have raised money from the market through debt); and not less than Rs. 1 lakh in the case of private companies. This declaration is necessary for obtaining a commencement certificate for business.

Every public limited company must have a managing director or whole time director, where paid up share capital is

  1. Above Rs. 2 cr

  2. Rs. 2 cr and above

  3. Rs. 5 cr and above

  4. Rs. 10 cr and above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Every public company or a private company which is a subsidiary of a public company, having a paid up share capital of Rs. 5 crores or more, must have a managing director or whole time director or manager.

There is regular trade between two parties through letter of credit but they want that it may not be required to open a letter of credit again and again. What type of LC is suitable for them?

  1. Irrevocable LC

  2. Revolving LC

  3. Red clause LC

  4. Confirmed LC


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A revolving letter of credit is a special letter of credit type which is structured in a way so that it revolves either in value or in time covering multiple shipments over a long period of time under single letter of credit. As, in the given case, they don't want to open an LC again and again, so revolving LC is suitable for them.

Which of the following documents is called charter of the company?

  1. Certificate of Commencement of Business

  2. Certificate of Incorporation

  3. Articles of Association

  4. Memorandum of Association


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An important step in the formation of a company is to prepare a document called memorandum of association. It is the charter of the company and is a very important document as it contains the basic conditions on which the company is incorporated.

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