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CSAT Paper - 1 (Mock Test - 8)

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Following are the factors that contributed to decline in poverty level: (a) Land reforms (b) Robust agriculture growth (c) Imports (d) Rapid and widespread industrialisation

Which of the above is/are incorrect?

  1. Only (a)

  2. Only (a) and (b)

  3. All of the above

  4. Only (c) and (d)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Land reforms and huge agriculture growth coupled with widespread industrialisation greatly contributed towards increase in per capita income. Exports are also responsible for employment generation.

What is the direct effect of deficit financing?

  1. It leads to extra money supply which in turn pushes up prices.

  2. It leads to extra money supply which in turn makes market more and more competitive.

  3. The price situation comes under complete control.

  4. Demand and supply both increase.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: It leads to extra money supply which in turn pushes up prices.

Which of the following is/are correct regarding Census 2011?

I. Literates constitute 69% of the total population aged 7 and above. II. The number of illiterates in the population has declined in Census 2011. III. Females outnumber males in the number of literates added to the population during 2001-11.

  1. Only I

  2. Only II

  3. Both I and III

  4. Both II and III


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The number of illiterates in the population has declined and females outnumber males in the number of literates added to the population during 2001-11 according to census 2011.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about earnings of SEZ units?

I. Export earnings receive 100% exemption from income tax for 5 years. II. They are required to pay excise duty on goods purchased from industries outside India. III. Export earnings do not get any tax exemption from income tax after 15 years.

  1. Only I

  2. I and II

  3. II and III

  4. I and III


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Export earnings receive 100% exemption from income tax for 5 years. There is no exemption from income tax after 15 years. The income tax is exempted for a period of 15 years, i.e. 100% of export profit is exempted from income tax for the first 5 years from the date of first exports. For the next 5 year, 50% of export profit is exempted. For the last 5 years, 50% of the ploughed back export profit is exempted from income tax. The above benefits are available subject to attainment of positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) earning in a block of 5 years from the date of commencement of operations.

Consider the following facts with respect to the scheme of establishment of Ashram schools:

  1. They are established mainly for promoting education in tribal areas.
  2. The scheme provides 100% funding for establishment/building of these schools for boys in Naxal affected areas.
  3. Expenditure on other items of non-recurring nature, for instance, furniture, etc. is to be shared with the Centre on 50:50 basis.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 2 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The objective of the scheme is to increase education among Scheduled Tribes including PTGs. Ashram Schools provide education with residential facilities in an environment conducive to learning. The scheme is in operation since 1990-91. Salient features of the scheme are:

a)    The scheme is operational in the Tribal Sub-Plan States/UT Administrations. b)   Construction of Ashram schools for the primary, middle, secondary and senior secondary stages of education as well as upgradation of existing Ashram Schools for Scheduled Tribe boys and girls including PTGs. c)   100% funding for establishment of Ashram Schools, i.e. school buildings, hostels, kitchen and staff quarters for girls in TSP areas. In addition, 100% funding for establishment of Ashram Schools for boys in only TSP areas of the naxal affected districts identified by Ministry of Home Affairs from time to time (list of naxal affected districts as specified by MHA annexed). All other Ashram Schools for boys in TSP states will, however, continue to be funded on 50:50 basis. 100% funding will be provided to UTs. d)    Financial assistance on 50:50 basis will be given for other non-recurring items of expenditure, i.e. purchase of equipment, furniture and furnishing, purchase of few sets of books for a small library for use of inmates of the hostels, etc.

Which of the following schemes are covered under the direct cash transfer scheme launched by the Government of India on 1st January, 2013?

(1) MNREGA (2) Midday Meal (3) Dhanlaxmi Scheme (4) Janani Suraksha Yojna (5) Post Matric Scholarship for SC

  1. Only (1), (3) and (4)

  2. Only (1) and (4)

  3. Only (1), (3), (4) and (5)

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The government rolled out its ambitious scheme of transferring cash to beneficiaries of select schemes in 20 districts on 1st January, 2013, but food, fertiliser and fuel subsidies will not be covered in the initial phase. Apart from the other schemes like MNREGA, Dhanlaxmi Scheme, etc. the beneficiaries of four more schemes - Post Matric Scholarship for SC, Post Matric Scholarship for OBC, Indira Gandhi Matritava Sahyog Yojna and Janani Suraksha Yojna - have been brought under the new cash transfer mode.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the three-year plan unveiled by the former Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee for moving to a Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime?

I. The GST will have Central GST as well as State GST. II. The first year of GST will have three rates. III. GST will have only a single rate for goods as well as services from third year onwards.

  1. I and II only

  2. II only

  3. II and III only

  4. I, II and III


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Former Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee unveiled a three-year plan for moving to a single-rate goods and services tax (GST) regime of 16 per cent for the Centre as well as the states. He suggested, the Centre to adopt a three-rate formula. While Mukherjee proposed that the rate of taxation for services be fixed at 8 per cent, a dual-rate regime for goods was recommended at the meeting of the empowered committee of state finance ministers. The Centre plans to keep a lower rate of 6 per cent for certain goods and maintain a standard rate of 10 per cent in the first year. In case the states agree to the formula, the standard GST rate had been 20 per cent since the states and the Centre will levy 10 per cent each on goods. For products which attracted a lower rate, the total GST burden had been 12 per cent, assuming that the Centre and the states agreed to levy 6 per cent each on these products.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. The Financial Action Task Force (on Money Laundering) (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7.
  2. The purpose of the FATF is to develop policies to combat money laundering and terrorism financing.
  3. The FATF Secretariat is housed at Geneva.
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 2 and 3

  4. All of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Financial Action Task Force (on Money Laundering) (FATF), also known by its French name, Groupe d'action financière (GAFI), is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1989 on the initiative of the G7. The purpose of the FATF is to develop policies to combat money laundering and terrorism financing. The FATF Secretariat is housed at the headquarters of OECD in Paris.

Consider the following facts:

  1. Chloroplast is an organelle which contains the green pigment called chlorophyll.
  2. Chlorophyll is involved in the formation of oxygen from carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.
  3. Chloroplast is also present in roots of plants.

Which of the given facts is/are incorrect?

  1. Only (2)

  2. Only (3)

  3. Only (2) and (3)

  4. Only (1) and (3)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(1) Chloroplast is a plant cell organelle that contains the green coloured pigment called chlorophyll.

(2) Chlorophyll is a green pigment which helps the plant trap solar energy. This energy helps to convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen. (3) Chloroplast is absent in root cells. The root cells contain chromoplast containing xanthophyll pigment.

Which of the following diseases is/are caused due to fungus?

(1) Cholera (2) Plague (3) Tuberculosis (4) Ringworm

  1. Only (1)

  2. Both (2) and (4)

  3. Both (3) and (4)

  4. Only (4)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Cholera, plague and tuberculosis are caused due to bacterial infection. Ringworm (tinea) is caused by a fungal infection on the skin.

One of the measures to tackle evils like poverty and unemployment and to ensure development of the poor is microfinance. However, the role microfinance institutions (MFIs) itself was questioned. Name the committee appointed by the Government of India to study the irregularities in these MFIs.

  1. Mangalam Committee

  2. Malegam Committee

  3. Tendulkar Committee

  4. Verma Committee


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Malegam Committee

Consider the following statements:

  1. Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian astronaut who reached the moon.
  2. The galactic (Milky Way) plane is inclined by about 60 degrees to the plane of the Earth`s orbit.

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Rakesh Sharma was the first astronaut from India to go into space. No Indian has reached the moon till now. Statement 2 is correct. The galactic plane is inclined by about 60 degrees to the ecliptic (the plane of the Earth's orbit).

Consider the following statements:

  1. Blood is a type of tissue.
  2. Erythrocytes help transport oxygen to various body parts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Blood is a connective tissue because it carries oxygen throughout the body to all other tissues. Statement 2 is also correct. Erythrocytes (RBCs) help transport oxygen to various body parts.

Which of the following is the largest and oldest military training centre of the Indian Army?

  1. Infantry School, Mhow

  2. Junior Leaders Wing, Belgaum

  3. National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla

  4. Indian Military Academy, Dehradun


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Infantry School, Mhow is responsible for developing the complete spectrum of tactical drills and concepts pertaining to infantry operating in varied terrains. It conducts courses related to the infantry for men and officers of the various regiments of the Indian Army. Field Marshal Sam Maneckshaw had served as the first Indian Commandant of this school in the fifties while he was a Brigadier. The Junior Leaders Wing, Belgaum is a part of Infantry School, Mhow which trains junior officers and junior leaders in sub-unit level in tactical and special mission techniques. The National Defence Academy is a Joint Service Academy of the Indian Armed Forces, where cadets of the three services, the Army, the Navy and the Air Force are trained together before they go on to pre-commissioning training to their respective service academies. The Indian Military Academy, Dehradun (also known as IMA) is the officer training Academy of the Indian Army.

The identification mark on a thousand rupees banknote is a

  1. diamond

  2. circle

  3. triangle

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

An identification mark in the banknote is an intaglio print which can be felt by touch and helps the visually impaired to identify the denomination. Thousand rupee banknote- diamond shape Five hundred rupee banknote- circle Hundred rupee banknote- triangle Fifty rupee banknote- square Twenty rupee banknote- rectangle Ten rupee banknote does not have intaglio print. Hence, option '1' is correct.

Which of the following diseases are covered under the overall umbrella of National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP)?

  1. Japanese Encephalitis
  2. Chikungunya
  3. Filaria
  4. Kala Azar
  5. Dengue
  1. 2, 3, 5

  2. 1, 3, 4, 5

  3. 1, 2, 3, 5

  4. All of them


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Directorate of National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) is the central nodal agency for the prevention and control of vector borne diseases such as Malaria, Dengue, Lymphatic Filariasis, Kala Azar, Japanese Encephalitis and Chikungunya in India. 

What factors led to the formulation of India's Look West Policy?

  1. Decisive failure of India's Look East Policy
  2. The prospect of the Gulf region becoming a major economic power house
  3. High proportion of NRI population (almost 4 million) living in the gulf region
  4. To minimize Pakistan's influence in the Gulf
  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

India has had its eye on Central Asia for a long time. Its primary interests there are in energy, minimizing Pakistan's influence and establishing itself as a significant player in the interplay of outside powers that is taking shape. As a convergent measure taking care of all these interest and concerns, India launched its Look West Policy. Note: India's Look East Policy was a success. The Look East Policy recognizes South-East Asia and East Asia, especially the regional organization ASEAN as central to India's policy in the Asia-Pacific.

Which is the correct order of the largest oil producers in the world?

  1. Saudi Arabia > Russia > Oman

  2. Saudi Arabia > Russia > Iran

  3. Russia > Saudi Arabia > Iran

  4. Russia > Saudi Arabia > Libya


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The top five oil producers are:

  1. Russia (12.01%)
  2. Saudi Arabia (10.06%)
  3. USA (8.91%)
  4. Iran (4.77%)
  5. China (4.56%)

Hence, option 3 is correct.

GPS is a US satellite navigation system that provides reliable location and time information in all-weather conditions and anywhere on or near Earth. Other similar navigation systems are given below:

  1. GALILEO - European Union
  2. SARAL (Satellite with Argos and Altika) - France
  3. GLONASS - Russia
  4. BHUVAN - India

Which of the above are correctly matched with their respective countries/organizations?

  1. 1 and 3

  2. 1, 2 and 4

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

GALILEO and GLONASS are GPS-like satellite navigation systems of European Union and Russia, respectively. SARAL (Satellite with Argos and Altika project is a collaboration between France and India in the environment monitoring domain with the objective to promote the study of the environment from space) and BHUVAN (a satellite mapping tool similar to Google Earth and Wikimapia; developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation and offers resolution up to 5.8 meters for the Indian Region) are not navigation systems.

The classic works of Mahakavi Kalidasa's Abhigyansakuntalam and Meghdoota belong to (in the order of their appearance)

  1. poem and play

  2. play and poem

  3. poem and poem

  4. play and play


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Kalidasa wrote the following three plays:

  1. Abhigyanasakuntalam (generally regarded as a masterpiece)
  2. Malavikagnimitram
  3. Vikramorvasiyam Kalidasa is the author of two epic poems:
  4. Raghuvamsha
  5. Kumarasambhava His two lyric poems are:
  6. Meghadoota (considered as Kalidasa's most popular poem)
  7. Ritusamhara Hence, the correct option is 2.

Pinnacle Islands are a disputed area. Which two countries lay claim to it?

  1. Uzbekistan and Kazakhistan

  2. Japan and China

  3. India and China

  4. Nigeria and Cameroon


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Senkaku Islands, also known as Diaoyutai Islands or the Pinnacle Islands, are a group of disputed, uninhabited islands currently controlled by Japan, but also claimed by the People's Republic of China and Republic of China (Taiwan). Their status has emerged as a major issue in foreign relations between the People's Republic of China and Japan and between Japan and the Republic of China.

Which of the following items, with respect to Indo-Roman trade and relations, were exported by India to Roman Empire?

  1. Precious stones
  2. Pepper
  3. Carpets
  4. Silk
  1. 2 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 2 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

  • India traded spices, ivory, textiles, precious stones and pepper.
  • Roman Empire exported gold, silver, fine glassware, wine, carpets and jewels.
  • China traded silk, teas and porcelain.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

What is the correct sequence of four out of seven cities of medieval Delhi?

  1. Siri - Tughlaqabad - Din Panah - Mehrauli

  2. Mehrauli - Siri - Tughlaqabad - Din Panah

  3. Din Panah - Tughlaqabad - Siri - Mehrauli

  4. Siri - Mehrauli - Tughlaqabad - Din Panah


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The chronological order of seven cities is: Qila-i- Rai Pithora Mehrauli Siri Tughlakabad Firozabad Shergarh/Din Panah Shahjehabanad

Hence, option '2' is correct.

Consider the following facts about the Pallava Empire.

  1. Pallavas ruled from two different capitals - Vengi and Kanchi.
  2. Mahendravarman was a Pallava King who acceded to throne in 600 AD and waged a successful battle against Chalukyas of Badami.
  3. Chinese traveler Hieun Tsang visited the Deccan during the reign of Pallava King Narsimhavarman.
  4. Simhavishnu succeeded his father Mahendravarman to the throne in the year 625 AD and ruled up to 645 AD.

Which of the above are true?

  1. 1, 2 and 4

  2. 2 and 4 only

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. 2 and 3 only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong because Pallavas actually ruled from three capitals. The third was Badami, also known at that time as Vatapi. Statement 4 is wrong because Simhavishnu was actually Mahendravarman's father who played a pivotal role in establishing the Pallava Kingdom in the Deccan. Mahendravarman was succeeded by his son Narsimhavarman who ruled from 625 to 645 AD.

Select the correct pair.

  1. Budhaditya Mukherjee: Sitar

  2. Bismillah Khan: Tabla

  3. Kishari Amonkar: Sarangi

  4. Remo Fernandes: Guitar


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Budhaditya Mukherjee plays Sitar. Budhaditya Mukherjee is India's leading sitarist of the younger generation. He began his career under his illustrious father Pandit Bimlendu Mukherjee at a tender age of 5. Budhaditya specializes in disciplined development of ragas, based on the Gayaki style, the basis of Imdadkhani gharana.

Which of the following has been awarded Noble Peace Prize thrice?

  1. Human Rights Council

  2. World Bank

  3. International Committee of the Red Cross

  4. UN Peacekeeping forces


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

International Committee of Red Cross has been awarded Noble Peace Prize thrice. The first Nobel Peace Prize was shared by two people, namely Jean Henry Dunant from Switzerland, the founder of the International Committee of Red Cross, Geneva and Frederic Passy from France, the founder and President of French Peace Society. The International Red Cross Committee has been awarded the Peace Prize thrice. Martti Ahtisaari was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2008 for his efforts in resolving international conflicts.

The four-fold division of society is mentioned in

  1. Kalpa Sutra

  2. Samaveda

  3. Purusha-sukta of Rigveda

  4. Aitreya Brahmana


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The four-fold division of society is mentioned in Purusa-sukta of Rigveda. The Rigveda culture was mainly pastoral. Purusha-sukta of Rigveda mentioned about the fourfold division of society. Contemporary students of Hindu society understand varna as an ancient fourfold arrangement of socioeconomic categories called the varnas, which is traced back to an oral tradition preserved in the Rigveda.

The East India Company was deprived of its political functions by

  1. Regulating Act of 1773

  2. Pitt's India Act of 1784

  3. Charter Act of 1793

  4. Charter Act of 1813


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Option 1: The Regulating Act of 1773 was an act of the Parliament of Great Britain intended to overhaul the management of the East India Company's rule in India. The act did not prove to be a long-term solution to concerns over the Company's affairs; Pitt's India Act was therefore subsequently enacted in 1784 as a more radical reform. Option 2: Pitt's India Act of 1784, was an act of the Parliament of Great Britain intended to address the shortcomings of the Regulating Act of 1773 by bringing the East India Company's rule in India under the control of the British Government. Pitt's India Act provided for the appointment of a Board of Control, and provided for a joint government of British India by both the Company and the Crown. Option 3: The Charter Act of 1793, was an act of the Parliament of Great Britain which renewed the charter issued to the British East India Company and continued the Company's rule in India. Option 4: In the Charter Act of 1813, the British parliament renewed the Company's charter but terminated its monopoly except with regard to tea and trade with China, opening India both to private investment and missionaries.

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Which act established the supremacy of the Presidency of Bengal over the other two presidencies of Madras and Bombay; unlike earlier when the three presidencies were independent of each other under their respective governors?

  1. Regulating Act, 1773

  2. Pitts India Act, 1784

  3. Charter Act of 1793

  4. Charter Act of 1813


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Provisions of the Regulating Act:

  1. The Act limited Company dividends to 6% until it repaid a £1.5M loan and restricted the Court of Directors to four-year terms.
  2. It prohibited the servants of company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the natives.
  3. The Act elevated Governor of Bengal Warren Hastings to Governor-General and subsumed the presidencies of Madras and Bombay under Bengal's control. (Therefore, option '1' is correct)
  4. The Act named four additional men to serve with the Governor-General on the Calcutta Council:  Lt-Gen John Clavering, George Monson, Richard Barwell and Philip Francis. Barwell was the only one with previous experience in India. These councilors were commonly known as the "Council of Four".
  5. A supreme court was established at Fort William at Calcutta. British judges were to be sent to India to administer the British legal system that was used there.

Petra is a government-run news agency in which of the following countries?

  1. Jordan

  2. Bahrain

  3. Syria

  4. Egypt


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Petra is a government-run news agency in Jordan. Jordan News Agency (PETRA) has witnessed significant technical and professional developments since it was first established in 1969, as an independent body linked to the Ministry of Information. The Royal Decree by virtue of which PETRA was established stated that the mission of PETRA is to achieve the goals of the Jordanian media by covering news and transmitting them both inside and outside Jordan through proper technical means.

Arrange the following treaties in the chronological order.

  1. Treaty of Allahabad
  2. Treaty of Bassein
  3. Treaty of Alinagar
  4. Treaty of Masulipatnam

Choose the correct order from the options given below.

  1. 3, 4, 1, 2

  2. 3, 1, 4, 2

  3. 4, 1, 3, 2

  4. 4, 3, 1, 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The correct chronological order is: Treaty of Alinagar (1757) -- Between the British East India Company and the Nawab of Bengal Treaty of Allahabad (1765) -- Mughal Emperor Shah Alum grants Diwani rights to the British East India Company Treaty of Masulipatam (1768) -- Confirms the conquest of the state of Hyderabad by the British Treaty of Bassein (1802) -- The Maratha peshwa of Pune surrenders the territories in western India to the British Empire

Hence, the correct option is 2.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Congress Socialist Party was the 'left-wing' of Congress.
  2. Acharya Narendra Dev was its first secretary.
  3. Jaiprakash Narayan was its first president.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In 1934, the Congress Socialist Party was formed within the Indian National Congress as its left wing.(Statement 1 is correct) The Congress Socialist Party was formed due to the efforts of Acharya Narendra Dev, Jai Prakash Narayan and Dr. Lohia. Acharya Narendra Dev was its first president and Jaiprakash Narayan was its first secretary. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Swadeshi Movement of 1905 was retaliation to the partition of Bengal.
  2. Syed Haider Raza carried the movement to the western parts of India.

Which of the above is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Swadeshi Movement began as a retaliation to the partition of Bengal in 1905 (statement 1 is correct) and continued up to 1908. It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movements. Its chief architects were Aurobindo Ghosh, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai. Mass meetings were held all over Bengal where Swadeshi or the use of Indian goods and the boycott of British goods were proclaimed and pledged. In many places, public burning of foreign cloth was organized and shops selling foreign cloth were picketed. Soon the movement spread to other parts of the country - in Poona and Bombay under Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, in Delhi under Syed Haider Raza (statement 2 is incorrect) and in Madras under Chidambaram Pillai.

In the context of the events at Bardoli, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel during Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928.
  2. The resolution of suspension of non-cooperation movement was passed at Bardoli.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928, the Bardoli Kisan Satyagraha proved to be the best example of the practice of Gandhian principle of non-violence as well as a milestone of the way of India’s freedom movement.  Statement 1. It is incorrect because the women of Bardoli called him Sardar for the first time, which in Gujarati which means Chief or Leader.  Statement 2. It is correct because in 1920, the Indian National Congress under Gandhi's leadership launched the non-cooperation movement. Millions of Indians revolted against the British, boycotting the courts, government services, schools and disavowing titles, pensions and British clothes and goods. In 1922, however, a mob of protestors killed some policemen in Chauri Chaura. Fearing a slide into violence and anarchy, Gandhi called for the struggle to be suspended from Bardoli, from where he had planned to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement if this incident had not occurred.

Which languages were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003?

  1. Sindhi and Nepali
  2. Konkani and Manipuri
  3. Bodo and Santhali
  4. Santhali and Konkani
  5. Dogri and Maithili
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 3 and 5

  4. 1, 3 and 5


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages. At the time the constitution was enacted, inclusion in this list meant that the language was entitled to representation on the Official Languages Commission, and that the language would be one of the bases that would be drawn upon to enrich Hindi, the official language of the Union. The list has since, however, acquired further significance. The Government of India is now under an obligation to take measures for the development of these languages, such that "they grow rapidly in richness and become effective means of communicating modern knowledge." In addition, a candidate appearing in an examination conducted for public service at a higher level is entitled to use any of these languages as the medium in which he or she answers the paper via the 92nd Constitutional Amendment, 2003. Four new languages - Bodo, Maithili, Dogri, and Santhali - were added to the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Armed Forces Special Powers Act 1958 empowers the President of India to declare any part of the state as a 'disturbed area'.
  2. Jeevan Reddy Committee was set up in the wake of intense agitation against AFSPA in the troubled valley of J&K.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Option 1: It is incorrect because AFSPA empowers the governor of the state, or the central government to declare any part of the state as a 'disturbed area', if, in its opinion, there exists a dangerous situation in the said area which makes it necessary to deploy armed forces in the region. Option 2: It is incorrect because Justice Jeevan Reddy committee was set up in 2004 to study the Armed Forces (Assam and Manipur) Special Powers Act, introduced in 1958 to control insurgency in the North-East. Option 3: It is incorrect. Option 4: It is correct.

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 discriminates the individual on the basis of descent.
  2. The 62nd Constitution Amendment Act, the National Commission for SCs and STs was constituted to take up matters related to socio-economic development of SCs and STs.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In addition to Prevention of Atrocities Act, 1989, the 65th Constitution Amendment Act, 1990 constituted National Commission for SCs and STs, w.e.f. 12th March, 1992 with wide functions and powers of Civil Court to take up matters which are of vital importance for socio-economic development of SCs and STs. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following facts.

  1. The powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayats are mentioned in the Twelfth Schedule, inserted in the Constitution of India by 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
  2. Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats include preparation of plan and implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice, and levying, collecting and appropriating taxes, duties, toll and fees.

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act added Schedule Eleven to the Constitution, which deals with powers, authorities and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj institutions. The Twefth Schedule was added by 74th Amendment Act, 1992 and it deals with the powers, authorities and responsibilities of municipalities.

Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India and their provisions are correctly matched?

  1. Article 72 - Pardoning power of the President
  2. Article 143 - Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
  3. Article 360 - Emergency Provisions relating to financial emergency
  4. Articles 148-151 - Relating to powers and functions of the Attorney
  1. 1, 3

  2. 1, 2, 3

  3. 1, 2, 4

  4. All of them


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Articles 148-151 are relating to the powers and functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Hence, option 4 is incorrect and options 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched. Article 148 - Comptroller and Auditor General of India Article 149 - Duties and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General Article 150 - Form of accounts of the Union and that of the States Article 151 - Audit reports

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the difference between the jurisdictions of the Supreme Court (SC) and the High Court (HC)?

  1. Only the Supreme Court has supervisory jurisdiction which the High Court does not have.
  2. Writ jurisdiction of the HC is wider than that of the SC.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Supervisory jurisdiction refers to the power of superior courts of general superintendence over all subordinate courts. Through supervisory jurisdiction, superior courts aim to keep subordinate courts within their prescribed sphere, and prevent usurpation. In order to exercising such control, the power is conferred on superior courts to issue the necessary and appropriate writs. Each court of appeal has supervisory jurisdiction, subject to the general supervisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, over all inferior courts in all cases in which an appeal would lie to the court of appeal. Therefore, not only the SC, but HCs also exercise this power over their subordinate courts. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but not for any other purposes. The High Court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights, but also for other purposes. Writ jurisdiction of the HC is wider than that of the SC.

Consider the following statements regarding administration of Union Territories (UTs):

  1. The President can appoint the Governor of state as the administrator of an adjoining UT.
  2. Only the UTs of Delhi and Chandigarh are provided with legislative assembly and a Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister.

Select the incorrect statement(s) from the given choices.

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Administration of Union territories

 

(1) Save as otherwise provided by Parliament by law, every Union territory shall be administered by the President acting, to such extent as he thinks fit, through an administrator to be appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.
 
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in Part VI, the President may appoint the Governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining Union territory, and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions as such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)
The National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry each has a legislative assembly and council of ministers. Some bills passed by the legislative assembly of the Union Territory of Puducherry and National Capital Territory of Delhi are required to be reserved for consideration and assent of the President.(Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the disinvestment policy in India?

  1. While pursuing disinvestment, the Government should have management control of the Public Sector Undertakings and holding at least 51% equity.
  2. The Department of Expenditure identifies CPSEs and submit proposal to Government in cases requiring Offer for Sale of Government equity.
  3. The listed profitable Central Public Sector Enterprises not meeting mandatory shareholding of 12% are divested by the CPSEs through issue of fresh shares.
  1. Only 1

  2. 2 and 3

  3. Only 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The salient features of the disinvestment policy in India are: (i) Citizens have every right to own part of the shares of Public Sector Undertakings. (ii) Public Sector Undertakings are the wealth of the Nation and this wealth should rest in the hands of the people. (iii) While pursuing disinvestment, Government has to retain majority shareholding, i.e. at least 51% and management control of the Public Sector Undertakings. Statement 2 is wrong because the department of disinvestment is to identify CPSEs in consultation with respective administrative Ministries and submit proposal to Government in cases requiring Offer for Sale of Government equity. Statement 3 is wrong. The already listed profitable CPSEs (not meeting mandatory shareholding of 10%) are to be made compliant by 'Offer for Sale' by Government or by the CPSEs through issue of fresh shares or a combination of both, though it has to reach 25% of public shareholding.

Which of the following High Courts and their territorial jurisdictions are correctly matched?

  1. Calcutta HC - West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar
  2. Guwahati HC - Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim
  3. Bombay HC - Maharashtra and Goa
  4. Gujarat HC - Gujarat, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu
  5. Madras HC - Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
  1. 1, 5

  2. 2, 4

  3. 1, 2, 4, 5

  4. 1, 2, 3, 5


Correct Option: A
Explanation:
HC Territorial Jurisdiction Seat Bench
Bombay High Court Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu Mumbai Nagpur, Panaji, Aurangabad
Calcutta High Court West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar Islands Kolkata Port Blair (circuit bench)
Gauhati High Court Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,  Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram Guwahati Kohima, Aizwal & Imphal. Circuit Bench at Agartala & Shillong
Gujarat High Court Gujarat Ahmedabad  
    Shimla  
Madras High Court Tamil Nadu, Puducherry Chennai Madurai

Hence, ONLY Calcutta and Madras High Courts are correctly matched.

When a country under goes transition from developing to developed,

  1. share of primary sector in the GDP increases

  2. share of secondary and tertiary sectors in the GDP decreases

  3. share of secondary and tertiary sectors in the GDP increases

  4. share of primary and secondary sectors in the GDP increases


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In early stages of development, primary sector or agriculture forms the largest share of its GDP and tertiary sector the least. In the second stage of development, share of secondary sector or industries in the GDP increases, while that of agriculture marginally declines. In the final stage, share of both the tertiary sector or services and the secondary sector increase, while that of agriculture declines sharply.

At present, Indian companies are allowed to access funds from abroad through which of the following methods?

  1. External Commercial Borrowings (ECB)
  2. Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs)
  3. Preference shares
  4. Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bond (FCEB)
  1. Only 1

  2. 1 and 2

  3. 2, 3 and 4

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

At present, Indian companies are allowed to access funds from abroad in the following methods: (i) External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) refer to commercial loans in the form of bank loans, buyers' credit, suppliers' credit, and securitized instruments. ECB can be accessed under two routes, viz. automatic route and approval route. (ii) Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) mean a bond issued by an Indian company expressed in foreign currency and the principal and interest in respect of which is payable in foreign currency. (iii) Preference Shares (i.e. non-convertible, optionally convertible or partially convertible) (iv) Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bond (FCEB) means a bond expressed in foreign currency, the principal and interest in respect of which is payable in foreign currency issued by an issuing company and subscribed to by a person who is a resident outside India, in foreign currency, and exchangeable into equity share of another company. Hence, option 4 is correct.

JNNURM is a programme launched by the Government of India in order to

  1. provide employment to the urban homeless

  2. satisfy infrastructural needs of rural areas

  3. provide low cost food grains to rural poor

  4. improve quality of life and infrastructure in urban cities


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The full form of JNNURM is Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission. It was launched in 2006 and aims at creating 'economically productive, efficient, equitable and responsive cities' by a strategy of upgrading the social and economic infrastructure in cities, provision of Basic Services to Urban Poor (BSUP) and wide-ranging urban sector reforms to strengthen municipal governance in accordance with the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Which of the following statements regarding the special provisions regarding the state of Jammu & Kashmir is/are incorrect?

  1. Parliament cannot alter the name and territory of J&K without the consent of the State legislature.
  2. No proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President under Article 352 on the ground of “internal disturbance” in J&K without the concurrence of J&K Government.
  3. The Union shall have the power to suspend the State Constitution on the ground of failure to comply with the directions given by the Union.
  4. The Union shall have no power to make a Proclamation of Financial Emergency with respect to the State of J&K.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 3 only

  4. 4 only


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions”, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status under Article 370. Even though included in the 1st Schedule as 15th state, all the provisions of the Constitution which are applicable to other states are not applicable to J&K. Special Features - J&K is the only state in India which has a Constitution of its own. The Constitution of J&K was enacted by a separate Constituent Assembly set up by the State and it came into force on 26th January, 1957. Autonomy in certain matters Any action of the Union Legislature or Union Executive which results in alteration of the name or territories or an international treaty or agreement affecting the disposition of any part of the territory of the state requires the consent of the State Legislature or the State Executive (as the case may be) to be effective. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Emergency Provisions The Union of India has no power to declare Financial Emergency under Article 360 in the state. Hence, statement 4 is correct. The union can declare emergency in the state only in case of war or external aggression. No proclamation of emergency made on the grounds of internal disturbance or imminent danger thereof shall have effect in relation to the state unless (a) it is made at the request or with the concurrence of the government of the state; or (b) where it has not been so made, it is applied subsequently by the President to that state at the request or with the concurrence of the government of that state. (Hence, statement 2 is correct). In December 1964, Articles 356 and 357 were extended to the state. The Union shall have no power to suspend the Constitution of the State on the ground of failure to comply with the directions given by the Union. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect) Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights Part IV (Directive Principles of the State Policy) and Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) of the Constitution are not applicable to J&K. In addition to other fundamental rights, Articles 19(1)(f) and 31(2) of the Constitution are still applicable to J&K; hence, the Fundamental Right to property is still guaranteed in this state.

Which of the following types of inflation acts as an incentive for the industry and other sectors of the economy?

  1. Running Inflation

  2. Creeping Inflation

  3. Structural Inflation

  4. Stagflation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Running Inflation - When the prices rise rapidly like the running of a horse at a rate of speed 10 to 20% per annum. The rate of the increase of price level gets further accelerated under running inflation. The price level under this type of inflation rises approximately by 10% every year. If government fails to curb running inflation in time, it may easily develop into galloping inflation. Creeping Inflation - Circumstance where the inflation of a nation increases gradually, but continually, over time. Although the increase is relatively small in the short-term as it continues over time, the effect will become greater and greater. It acts as an incentive for the industry and other sectors of the economy.  Structural Inflation - Inflation built into the economic system due to its government's monetary policy. In economics, stagflation is a situation in which the inflation rate is high and the economic growth rate slows down and unemployment remains steadily high. It raises a dilemma for economic policy since actions designed to lower inflation or reduce unemployment may actually worsen economic growth.

In the Brundtland Commission report, a term was coined which is of utmost significance in modern scenario and in times to come, in the dynamics of resource management. What is that term?

  1. Polluter-Pays Principle

  2. Sustainable Development

  3. Inclusive Growth

  4. Carrying Capacity


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use, that aims to meet human needs while preserving the environment so that these needs can be met not only in the present, but also for generations to come. The term was used by the Brundtland Commission which coined what has become the most often-quoted definition of sustainable development as development that "meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."

In which of the following activities is the Foreign Direct Investment in India not allowed?

  1. Real estate business
  2. Rubber plantation
  3. Manufacturing of cigarette
  4. Business of chit fund
  5. Nidhi company
  1. Only 2

  2. 2, 4 and 5

  3. Only 5

  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

FDI in India is prohibited in the following areas:

  • Business of chit fund
  • Nidhi company (a non-banking finance company)
  • Real estate business (business dealing in land and immovable property with a view of earning profit or earning income there from and does not include development of townships, construction of residential/commercial premises, roads or bridges, educational institutions, recreational facilities, city and regional level infrastructure, townships) or construction of farm houses
  • Trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)
  • Retail Trading (except single brand product retailing)
  • Atomic Energy
  • Lottery business including government/private lottery, online lotteries, etc.
  • Gambling and betting including casinos, etc.
  • Activities/sectors not opened to private sector investment
  • Agriculture (excluding floriculture, horticulture, development of seeds, animal husbandry, pisciculture and cultivation of vegetables, mushrooms, etc. under controlled conditions and services related to agro and allied sectors) and plantations (other than tea plantations)
  • Manufacturing of cigars, cheroots, cigarillos and cigarettes of tobacco or of tobacco substitutes, though distribution is allowed
Partnership firms/proprietorship concerns having investments as per FEMA regulations are not allowed to engage in print media sector.

Consider the following statements.

  1. The 9th schedule to the Constitution was introduced by the former Prime Minister, Mrs. Indira Gandhi.
  2. According to its provision, any law included in the schedule is not subject to judicial review.
  3. There are about 284 laws in the 9th schedule.
  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

According to its provision, any law included in the schedule is not subject to judicial review. There are about 284 laws in the 9th schedule. Initially, there were only 13 laws in the ninth schedule, but now there are around 284 laws in it, including the controversial 69 percent reservation law of Tamil Nadu, which violates the apex court's 50 percent ceiling on quotas.

Match the following:

 
Column I Column II
A. Failure of Cripps Mission 1. The Government of India declared India to be at war with Germany
B. Resignation of Congress Ministries in the provinces 2. Individual Satyagraha
C. August Offer 3. Quit India Movement
D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Direct Action Day
  1. A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4

  2. A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

  3. A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

  4. A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Cripps mission failed due to Quit India movement. The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior left-wing politician and government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill. Congress ministries resigned October and November 1939 because the Government of India declared India to be at war with Germany, against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people. August Offer was held in individual satyagraha and cabinet mission plan was the direct action day.

Which of the following reports is/are published every year by the World Bank?

  1. World Development Report
  2. World Trade Development Report
  3. International Finance and Development Report
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 1 and 2

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

World Development Report is published every year by the World Bank. The World Bank's annual World Development Report provides a wide international readership with an extraordinary window on development economics. Each year, the report focuses on a specific aspect of development.

Which of the following refineries in India has the highest capacity (in Million Metric Tonnes per Annum)?

  1. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Panipat, Haryana

  2. Reliance Industries Ltd. (RIL), Jamnagar, Gujarat

  3. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL), Mumbai, Maharashtra

  4. Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited (CPCL), Manali, Tamil Nadu


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Option 1 is wrong. Its capacity is 15 MMTPA (Million Metric Tonnes per Annum). Option 2 is correct. Its capacity is 33 MMTPA. Option 3 is wrong. Its capacity is 12 MMTPA. Option 4 is wrong. Its capacity is 10.5 MMTPA.

The season of retreating monsoon in India is marked by which of the following?

  1. Cyclonic storms over thickly populated deltas of Krishna and Kaveri
  2. Norwesters in Bengal and Assam
  3. October heat
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 1 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The season of retreating monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the 'October heat'. (Hence, option 3 is correct). In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in North India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months of the year. The widespread rain in this season is associated with the passage of cyclonic depressions which originate over the Andaman Sea and manage to cross the eastern coast of the southern Peninsula. These tropical cyclones are very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri are their preferred targets. (Hence, option 1 is correct).

Consider the following facts.

  1. The Indus rises near Mansarovar in Tibet, flows through India and Pakistan, and finally drains into the sea near Karachi.
  2. The principal tributaries of the Indus in India are Subansiri, Dhansiri, Puthimari and Manas.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Subansiri, Dhansiri, Puthimari and Manas are all tributaries of the Brahmaputra, and not the Indus.

Which of the following is/are the indicator(s) of the Health Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index?

  1. Nutrition
  2. Sanitation facility
  3. Number of children enrolled
  4. Assets
  1. Only 1, 2 and 3

  2. Only 1 and 3

  3. Only 1

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative and the United Nations Development Programme, and uses different factors to determine poverty beyond income-based lists. It replaced the previous Human Poverty Index.

The index uses the same three dimensions as the Human Development Index: Health, education and standard of living. These are measured using ten indicators.

Dimension                                                         Indicators

Health                                                               Child Mortality

            Nutrition

Education                                                          Years of school

            Children enrolled

Living Standards                                                Cooking fuel

            Toilet

            Water

            Electricity

            Floor

            Assets

Each dimension and each indicator within a dimension are equally weighted.

In India, tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests are found in/on

  1. Western slopes of Western Ghats and Eastern slopes of Eastern Ghats
  2. Andaman and Nicobar Group of Islands
  3. Hills of northeastern region
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 1 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

These forests are found in the Western slope of the Western Ghats (and not the Eastern slopes of the Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect), hills of the northeastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct).

'Saddle Peak', the highest peak of the Andaman and Nicobar Group, is located in

  1. Car Nicobar

  2. Great Nicobar

  3. Little Andaman

  4. North Andaman


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Saddle Peak is located on North Andaman Island in India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands. At 732 m, it is the highest point of the archipelago in the Gulf of Bengal. It is surrounded by the Saddle Peak National Park. (Hence, option '4' is correct).

A deep narrow valley formed as a result of rapid down-cutting by a river is called a

  1. Bay

  2. Fjord

  3. Gorge

  4. Isthmus


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

'Bay' is a body of water forming an indentation of the shoreline, larger than a cove but smaller than a gulf. 'Fjord' is a long, narrow, deep inlet of the sea between high cliffs. 'Isthmus' is a narrow strip of land, bordered on both sides by water, connecting two larger bodies of land.

Which of the following pairs of 'states - its dance' is not correctly matched?

  1. Ghoomar - Rajasthan

  2. Bardo Chham - Arunachal

  3. Panthi - Jharkhand

  4. Raas - Gujrat


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Panthi is not the dance of Jharkhand, but is of Chhattisgarh.

Which of the following statements about Yamal peninsula is/are true?

  1. It is the biggest natural gas reserve of Russia.
  2. It is principally surrounded by Laptev Sea and East Siberian Sea.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

India is demanding stake in the gas fields of Yamal Peninsula which is in the northwest of Siberia. It is surrounded by Kara Sea, Baydaratskaya Bay in the west and by the Gulf of Ob in the east, whereas Laptev Sea and East Siberian Sea are in the northeastern coast of Siberia. Yamal Peninsula is Russia's biggest natural gas reserve with an estimate of gas reserves at 55 trillion cubic meters (tcm). Therefore, option '1' is correct.

Which of the following cities is not a capital of any country?

  1. Sofia

  2. Johannesburg

  3. Ottawa

  4. Havana


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Sofia is the capital of Bulgaria. Ottawa is the capital of Canada. Havana is the capital of Cuba. Johannesburg is the largest city of South Africa, not its Capital. South Africa has three Capital cities - Pretoria (administrative); Cape Town (legislative); and Bloemfontein (judicial).

The Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Wildlife Sanctuary, which is famous for its tiger population, is in

  1. Andhra Pradesh

  2. Tamil Nadu

  3. Karnataka

  4. Gujarat


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Nagarjuna Srisailam Wildlife Sanctuary, which is famous for its tiger population, is in Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the following is/are not correctly matched?

  1. Savannah Climate - Tall grasses
  2. Mediterranean Climate - Prominence of local winds
  3. Equatorial Climate - Double rainfall peaks coinciding with the equinoxes
  4. Steppe Climate - Extensive mechanized wheat cultivation
  1. 1 and 4

  2. 1, 2 and 3

  3. 2, 3 and 4

  4. None of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Savannah Climate - The landscape is typified by tall grasses (6-12 feet high) and short trees. The grass appears greenish and well-nourished in the rainy season but turns yellow and dies down in the dry season that follows. The grass lies dormant throughout the long, rainless period and springs up again in the next rainy season. Mediterranean Climate - Prominence of local winds (some hot and others cold); the passing cyclones from the Atlantic, the anticyclones from the north and the cold air masses from the continental interiors are often interrupted or channeled by relief features resulting in the birth of local winds (such as Sirroco, Mistral) around the Mediterranean. Equatorial Climate - There are two periods of maximum rainfall, in April and in October, which occur shortly after the equinoxes. Therefore, double rainfall peaks coinciding with the equinoxes are a characteristic feature of equatorial climate not found in any other type of climate. Steppe Climate - Extensive mechanized wheat cultivation (All of them are correctly matched. So, option '4' is the correct answer.)

Which of the following earthquake waves is the most destructive?

  1. Primary wave

  2. Secondary wave

  3. Rayleigh wave

  4. Love wave


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

There are two types of seismic waves, body waves and surface waves. Body waves (p-waves and s-waves) travel through the interior of the Earth. Surface waves travel along the Earth's surface. They travel slower than body waves. Because of their low frequency, long duration and large amplitude, they can be the most destructive type of seismic wave. There are two types of surface waves: Rayleigh waves and Love waves. Out of these two waves, love waves are more destructive.

Vinson Massif is the highest mountain of

  1. Canada

  2. Greenland

  3. Antarctica

  4. New Zealand


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Vinson Massif is the highest mountain of Antarctica.

Which of the following is not a component of the Integrated Coastal Management Zone (ICZM) project financed by World Bank in India?

  1. Mapping of vulnerable and ecologically sensitive area

  2. National institute building and capacity strengthening

  3. Development and state level approaches in Karnataka, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option '1' is correct as the national component of ICZM includes mapping, delineation and demarcation of hazard lines. It also includes delineation of coastal sediment cells. Option 2 is correct as it includes capacity building of state level agencies and institutions. Option 3 is wrong as it involves development and state level approaches in states of Gujarat, West Bengal and Orissa. Hence, option 3 is the answer as it is not a correct statement.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the various multilateral environment agreements (MEAs) ratified by India?

  1. Basel Convention of 1989 was on regulation of trans-boundary movement, transit, handling and use of living modified organisms.

  2. Montreal Protocol of 1987 deals with ozone depleting substances.

  3. Bonn Convention of 1979 is regarding the conservation of migratory species.

  4. Rotterdam Convention of 1998 pertains to Consensual International Trade in certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Basel Convention on the control of trans-boundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal, usually known simply as the Basel Convention, is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). However, it does not address the movement of radioactive waste.

The white-backed, long-billed and the cinereous species of vultures are facing threat of extinction. Consider the two drugs below:

  1. Meloxicum
  2. Diclofenac

Which drug(s) pose(s) major threat to these vultures?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither of them


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The use of diclofenac in animals has been reported to lead to a sharp decline in the vulture population in the Indian subcontinent. Vultures eat the carcasses of livestock that have been administered veterinary diclofenac, and are poisoned by the accumulated chemical.

Recent trends in agricultural productivity have shown a decline in marginal productivity of soil in relation to the application of fertilizers. What is the most important reason behind this?

  1. Less than optimal application of chemical fertilizers by farmers in India

  2. Skewed application of fertilizers with bias in favour of nitrogenous fertilizers

  3. Declining domestic production of straight fertilizers like Urea and DAP

  4. Inadequate credit facilities to the farmer for buying high quality farm inputs


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Three of the most important types of fertilizers in India are Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium (NPK). For India, the standard ratio of application of NPK fertilizers has been estimated to be 4 : 2 : 1, but the fertilizer application is generally seen to be biased in favour of nitrogenous fertilizers. The bias reached its peak in 1996-1997 when the ratio was 10 : 3 : 1. According to latest recorded figures, the ratio of application of NPK fertilizers is 5.5 : 2 : 1.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Nicotine is only present in the leaves of tobacco plants, which are economically used.
  2. The top three producers of tobacco are India, United States and Pakistan.
  3. According to a provision in the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2000 (COPTA), sale and advertisement of tobacco and related products are banned within 100 meters of educational institutes and airports.
  1. Only (1)

  2. (1), (2) and (3)

  3. Only (2) and (3)

  4. Only (2)


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement (1) is wrong. The distribution of the nicotine in the mature tobacco is widely variable: 64% in the leaves, 18% in the stem, 13% in the root and 5% in the flowers. Hence, nicotine is obtained from the entire plant. Statement (2) is wrong. The top producers of tobacco are China (39.6%), India (8.3%), Brazil (7.0%) and the United States (4.6%). Statement (3) is wrong. According to a provision in the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 (COPTA), sale and advertisement of tobacco and related products are banned within 100 meters of educational institutes and airports.  Thus, all the statements are incorrect.

The Cartagena Protocol is regarding safe use, transfer and handling of

  1. radioactive isotopes

  2. living modified organisms

  3. hazardous chemicals and inflammable by-products

  4. invasive alien species


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Cartagena Protocol on bio-safety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another. (Hence, option '2' is correct).

Which of the following pairs of 'countries - its capital' is not correctly matched?

  1. Turkey - Ankara

  2. Syria - Amman

  3. South Africa - Bloemfontein

  4. Peru - Lima


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

South Africa has three capitals - Tshwane (Pretoria), Cape Town, and Bloemfontein. Capital of Syria is Damascus. Amman is the capital city of Jordan.

The non-point pollution of river water involves discharge of pollutants through

  1. industrial wastewater

  2. sewage treatment plant

  3. agricultural areas

  4. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Non-point source pollution refers to diffuse contamination that does not easily attributed to a single source. Non-point source water pollution affects a water body from sources such as polluted runoff from agricultural areas draining into a river, or wind-borne debris blowing out to sea, whereas discharges from a sewage treatment plant, a factory, or a city storm drain are examples of point pollution sources of river water.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about biomes?

  1. Biomes are defined as group of ecosystems sharing similar climatic conditions on Earth, such as communities of plants, animals and soil organisms living in the same environment.
  2. A Temperate Grassland or Shrub-Land Biome is commonly known as Steppe in Central Asia, Prairie in North America and Pampas in South America.
  3. Biomes may have both biotic and abiotic components.
  1. Only 2

  2. Only 3

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 1 and 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Biomes are climatically and geographically defined as similar climatic conditions on the Earth, such as communities of plants, animals, and soil organisms, and are often referred to as groups of ecosystems. Terrestrial biomes are those that occur on the land and include deserts, grasslands, tropical forests, temperate forests, taiga, and tundra. For example, Temperate Grassland or Shrub-Land Biome is commonly known as Steppe in Central Asia, Prairie in North America and Pampas in South America. The Aquatic Biomes occur in water and are often divided into the marine and freshwater biomes, depending on the salinity of the water. Biomes may have both biotic and abiotic components.

Consider the following statements:

  1. The centre of tropical cyclone is colder than its surroundings.
  2. Hurricane and typhoon are tropical storms.
  3. Tropical cyclones are areas of low atmospheric pressure in the Earth's atmosphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. 1 and 2

  3. Only 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option 1 is wrong. At any given altitude, except close to the surface, where water temperature controls air temperature, the environment inside the cyclone is warmer than its outer surroundings. Option 2 is wrong as hurricane, typhoon and tropical storms are tropical cyclones with tropical storm not usually having an eye as compared to the other two. Option 3 is correct as tropical cyclone develop over large bodies of warm water, i.e. the atmospheric pressure is low and loses the strength if they move over land due to increased surface friction and loss of the warm ocean as an energy source. Cyclone Thane that recently hit India is a tropical cyclone.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about community and eco-system diversity?

  1. Alpha-diversity (between-community diversity) refers to the rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats or communities.
  2. Beta-diversity (within-community diversity) refers to the diverse organisms sharing the same community/habitat.
  3. Gamma diversity (overall) refers to the diversity of habitats over the total landscape or geographical area.
  1. Only 2

  2. Only 3

  3. 1 and 2

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Alpha-diversity (within-community diversity) refers to the diverse organisms sharing the same community/habitat. Beta-diversity (between-community diversity) refers to the rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats or communities. Gamma diversity (overall) refers to the diversity of habitats over the total landscape or geographical area.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect and statement 3 is correct.
 

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides for various categories of protected areas. These include

  1. conservation reserves
  2. community reserves
  3. biosphere reserve
  4. tiger reserves
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 4 only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, tiger reserves, community reserves and conservation reserves are backed up by the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is important to remember that biosphere reserves are created by merely a notification and they DO NOT require legislation.

Consider the following statements:

  1. A passive optical network is a point-to-point optical network.
  2. A gigabit passive optical network has higher bandwidth and higher efficiency.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither of them


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because passive optical network is a point-to-multipoint network useful for broadcasting. Statement 2 is correct as gigabit passive optical network is the advanced form of passive optical network with more bandwidth than its predecessor and thus, is more efficient.

Kyoto Protocol covers emissions of six main greenhouse gases and methane is one of them. Which of the following are sources of methane emission?

  1. Combustion of fossil fuels
  2. Wetlands
  3. Automobiles
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All three are sources of methane. Fossil fuels are one of the largest sources of CH4 emissions. Methane emissions from passenger cars (automobiles) have, however, dropped as the use of catalytic converters has increased. Methane can also be emitted by natural sources such as wetlands.

Match the following:

 
List I (Wildlife Sanctuaries) List II (States)
A. Namdapha

B. Periyar
C. Bandipur
D. Lamjao | 1. Karnataka 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Manipur 4. Kerala |

  1. (A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 1, (D) - 3

  2. (A) - 4, (B) - 2, (C) - 1, (D) - 3

  3. (A) - 2, (B) - 4, (C) - 3, (D) - 1

  4. (A) - 4, (B) - 2, (C) - 3, (D) - 1


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India. It is also the largest national park in India in terms of area. Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary (PNP) is a protected area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala, South India. It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve. Bandipur National Park, established in 1973 as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national park located in the South Indian state of Karnataka. It was once a private hunting reserve for the Maharaja of the Kingdom of Mysore. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India.

Which of the following statements regarding forest ecosystems is/are incorrect?

  1. The number pyramid is neither inverted nor upward.
  2. The biomass pyramid is inverted.
  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In a forest ecosystem, the producers are large size trees which make the base of pyramid. The herbivores such as fruit eating birds, deer, elephants, etc. make the primary consumers and are less than primary producers. After that, the number goes down at each successive level. Thus, a pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem is partially upright or spindle shaped. Biomass pyramid is upright in a forest ecosystem because a larger net biomass of producers supports a smaller weight of consumers.

Which of the following cannot be synthesized naturally in the human body?

  1. Essential amino acids

  2. Vitamin K

  3. Fatty acids

  4. Insulin


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

An essential amino acid or indispensable amino acid is an amino acid that cannot be synthesized de novo by the organism (usually referring to humans) and therefore, must be supplied in the diet. The amino acids regarded as essential for humans are phenylalanine, valine, threonine, tryptophan, isoleucine, methionine, leucine, lysine and histidine.

Which of the following are the sources of mercury pollution?

  1. Coal-fired power plants
  2. Supersonic jets
  3. Cement kilns
  4. Trash incinerators
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 1, 3 and 4 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1 and 4 only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Coal-fired power plants are the largest source of mercury pollution as mercury exists naturally in coal. Cement kilns are used for the manufacture of hydraulic cement and coal, which is a major source of mercury, is used to fuel the cement-manufacturing process. Incinerator is waste treatment process that involves the combustion of organic substances contained in waste materials. Supersonic jets release nitrogen oxide, and not mercury.

Which of the following describes a tiny, dense, hot star representing the later stage in the life-cycle of a star, with matter in it so dense that a single tea-spoonful of it would weigh several tonnes?

  1. Black dwarf

  2. Supernova

  3. Supergiants

  4. White dwarf


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

White dwarf is a very small hot star, the last stage in the life cycle of a star like the Sun. White dwarfs have a mass similar to that of the Sun, but are only 1% of the Sun's diameter; approximately the diameter of the Earth. 

Which disease does adult hypothyroidism lead to?

  1. Graves disease

  2. Gynaecomastia

  3. Myxedema

  4. Aldosteronism


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Myxedema is a dry, waxy type of swelling associated with hypothyroidism. It leads to distinctive facial changes with swollen lips and nose. Thus, this is a disease due to adult hypothyroidism.

The Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the ozone layer aims to limit the emission and utilisation of

  1. Dichloromethane
  2. CFCs
  3. HFCs
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

All ozone depleting substances contain either chlorine or bromine (substances containing only fluorine do not harm the ozone layer). These include CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs replaced CFCs and HCFCs. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer because, unlike CFCs and HCFCs, they do not contain chlorine. The Montreal Protocol does not address HFCs. But HFCs cause global warming. Dichloromethane is a new entry among gases that depletes ozone layer, but at present, it has not been included under Montreal Protocol.

Consider the following statements regarding graphene:

  1. Graphene is a three-dimensional atomic-scale honeycomb lattice made of carbon atoms.
  2. Graphene, an allotrope of carbon, has numerous applications in nanotechnology.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Graphene is an allotrope of carbon whose structure is one-atom-thick planar sheets of sp2-bonded carbon atoms that are densely packed in a honeycomb crystal lattice. The carbon-carbon bond length in graphene is about 0.142 nanometers. Hence, it finds applications in the field of nanotechnology. Graphene sheets stack to form graphite with an interplanar spacing of 0.335 nm, which means that a stack of three million sheets would be only one millimeter thick. Graphene is the basic structural element of some carbon allotropes including graphite, charcoal, carbon nanotubes and fullerenes. It can also be considered as an indefinitely large aromatic molecule, the limiting case of the family of flat polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons. (Therefore, both the statements 1 and 2 are correct)

Biopesticides are cultured microorganisms or organic products that biologically control or destroy the pests that cause damage to plants. What are their advantages over chemical pesticides?

  1. This method relies on the natural enemies of the pests.
  2. No bioaccumulation and biomagnification in food chain.
  3. Development of resistance by pests in due course, but that only on indiscriminate use.
  4. Kills or cripples all the pests or micro-organisms in the targeted area.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 1, 2 and 4

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The advantages of using biopesticides:

1. This method relies on the natural enemies of the pests. 

2. No bioaccumulation and biomagnification in food chain.

Which of the following sub-units of Indian physiography does the following information refer to?

  1. It was mainly formed in the cretaceous period.
  2. Large scale upheaval of basaltic lava from the earth's interior led to its formation.
  3. It has gentle slope in the South and steep slope in the North.
  1. Chota Nagpur Plateau

  2. Deccan Plateau

  3. Vindhyan Plateau

  4. Dandakaranya region


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Maharashtra Plateau or Deccan Plateau was formed in the cretaceous period due to massive upheaval of basaltic lava from the interior of the earth. It has gentle slope in the South (towards the Karnataka Plains) and steep slope in the North (towards the Satpura ranges).

The electricity resulting from the charge that accumulates in certain 'solid materials' (notably crystals, certain ceramics and biological matter such as bone, DNA and various proteins), in response to applied mechanical stress, is called

  1. piezoelectricity

  2. triboelectricity

  3. pyroelectricity

  4. dielectricity


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Piezoelectricity is the charge that accumulates in certain solid materials (notably crystals, certain ceramics, and biological matter such as bone, DNA and various proteins) in response to applied mechanical stress. The word 'piezoelectricity' means electricity resulting from pressure. 'Piezoelectricity' is found in applications such as the production and detection of sound, generation of high voltages, electronic frequency generation, microbalances, and ultra fine focusing of optical assemblies. It is also the basis of a number of scientific instrumental techniques with atomic resolution, the scanning probe microscopes.

Which of the following is/are the ad-hoc bodies of the UN General Assembly?

A. Special Committee on Peace Keeping Operation, Human Rights Committee, Committee on the Peaceful Use of Outer Space B. Conciliation Commission for Palestine, Conference on Disarmament, International Law Commission, Scientific Committee on the effects of Atomic Radiation C. Special Committee on the Implementation of the Declaration on the Granting of Independent Countries and Peoples Commission on International Trade Law

  1. Only A

  2. A and B

  3. A and C

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

All of the above are the ad-hoc bodies of the UN General Assembly.

Which of the following parts of human body is affected by diphtheria?

  1. Blood

  2. Throat

  3. Liver

  4. Brain


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Throat is the part of human body which is affected by diphtheria. Diphtheria mainly spreads from person to person by direct contact with people who have this condition or carry it. Since the bacteria are located in human's nose, throat and mouth, it can spread via droplet infections through sneezing and coughs. 

Permanent hardness of water, due to sulphates of the metal, can be destroyed by the use of

  1. nitrates
  2. zeolites
  3. sulphonates
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 1 and 2

  4. Only 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Permanent hardness of water, due to sulphates of the metal, can be destroyed by use of zeolites. Zeolites are hydrated sodium alumino silicate minerals which destroy the calcium and magnesium sulphates in the water.

Each planet tends to be roughly twice as far from the sun as its next Sunward neighbour. This is called

  1. Bode's Law

  2. Hawkin's Law

  3. Bagnold's Law

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Each planet tends to be roughly twice as far from the sun as its next Sunward neighbour. This is called Bode's Law. The Titius-Bode law is a hypothesis that the bodies in some orbital systems, including the Sun's orbit at semi-major axes in a function of planetary sequence. The hypothesis correctly predicted the orbits of Ceres and Uranus, but failed as a predictor of Neptune's orbit.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Antibodies are also received by foetus from mother's milk.
  2. Antibodies are basically protein molecules.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Breast milk contains antibodies and lymphocytes that help the baby to resist infections. Statement 2 is also correct. Antibiotics are mainly protein molecules.

Consider the following facts about 'Noori', the cloned goat:

  1. The birth of Noori is not only a breakthrough in the Indian cloning scene, but it is also seen as a step that will bolster Himalayan Cashmere industry.
  2. Like its cloned predecessors, Samrupa and the two Garimas, Noori too was born in the Karnal based National Dairy Research Institute.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. Only (1)

  2. Only (2)

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. Neither (1) nor (2)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Noori is the world's first Pashmina goat clone. The goat was cloned at Sher-i-Kashmir Agriculture University for Science and technology (SKAUST) in cooperation with NDRI.

Directions: The question consist of two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Uncooked potatoes are not digested by human beings. Reason (R): Starch granules in uncooked potatoes are coated with cellulose.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Which of the following tiger reserves are NOT correctly matched with their respective locations?

  1. Udanti-Sitanadi - Rajasthan
  2. Dandeli-Anashi - Chhattisgarh
  3. Sariska - Orissa
  4. Satkosia - Karnataka
  1. 1 and 3

  2. 1, 2 and 4

  3. 2, 3 and 4

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Udanti-Sitanadi        -     Chhattisgarh Dandeli-Anashi       -      Karnataka Sariska                      -      Rajasthan Satkosia                    -      Orissa

Hence, all are incorrectly matched. 

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