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CSAT Paper - 1 (Mock Test - 10)

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With the current programmes in operation, India is poised to attain complete literacy by 2030, but these are certain alarming factors appurtenant to it. (a) Learning level of children is abysmally poor. (b) 2/3rd of children (7 - 14) could not read a story of grade 2 level. (c) 40% of them could not do basic arithmetic operations viz. subtraction and division. (d) The only consoling factor is that drop out rate at primary level is not high.

Which of the above you do not agree to?

  1. Only (a)

  2. Only (a) and (b)

  3. Only (b) and (c)

  4. Only (d)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

On account of gigantic programmes like SSA, Midday Meal Scheme, the enrolment has considerably improved, but the learning level is dismally low. Besides, drop out rate at primary level still remains alarming.

What is the location of islets of langerhans?

  1. Part of the pancreas

  2. By the side of the kidney

  3. On both sides of lungs

  4. Below the right portion of the liver


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Islets of Langerhans are present as a part of the pancreas. The islets of Langerhans are the regions of the pancreas that contain its endocrine cells. Discovered in 1869 by German pathological anatomist Paul Langerhans at the age of 22, the islets of Langerhans constitute approximately 1 to 2% of the mass of the pancreas.

The Tagore Commemorative Grant Scheme was launched by the Government of India to celebrate Rabindranath Tagore's 150th Birth Anniversary. The organizations eligible for grant under this scheme are

  1. all not-for-profit organizations

  2. all individuals as well as organizations working with the Ministry of Culture

  3. all religious, political and educational organizations

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The scheme will cover assistance to all forms of 'not-for-profit' organizations, including Societies, Trusts, Universities (including University's Centres and Institutions), Schools, Colleges, Research Institutions, Government-assisted Organizations etc. 

Bharat Nirman is a pan-India plan for creating basic rural infrastructure. Which of the following are the components of the plan?

  1. Road connectivity
  2. Sanitation facilities
  3. Water supply
  4. Telecom connectivity
  1. Only 1 and 3

  2. Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. Only 1, 3 and 4

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bharat Nirman is a pan-India plan for creating basic rural infrastructure. It comprises projects on irrigation, roads (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana), housing (Indira Awaas Yojana), water supply, electrification (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana) and telecommunication connectivity.

Which of the following statements about the changes proposed in the Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill is/are correct?

I. The corporate tax rate has been reduced. II. Cess and surcharge on corporate tax have been removed. III. The corporate tax rate will be the same for both Indian and foreign companies.

  1. I and II only

  2. II and III only

  3. III only

  4. I and III only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: II and III only

Which of the following processes is/are performed by plants?

  1. Transpiration
  2. Respiration
  3. Guttation
  4. Photolysis
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) Transpiration is the loss of water from plants in the form of water vapour.

(ii) Plants respire during night time, which involves intake of oxygen and give out carbon dioxide. Plants also respire during day time, which is called photorespiration (but in lesser extent).

(iii) Guttation is the loss of water in the form of water droplets. (iv) Photolysis is the breakdown of water molecules to release oxygen during photosynthesis.

The concept of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution originated from the

  1. Golaknath case

  2. Keshvananda Bharti case

  3. Minnerva Mills case

  4. Shah Bano case


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Supreme Court recognized ‘basic structure’ concept for the first time in the historic Kesavananda Bharati[6] case in 1973. Ever since the Supreme Court has been the interpreter of the Constitution and the arbiter of all amendments made by parliament. In this case validity of the 25th Amendment Act was challenged along with the Twenty-fourth and Twenty-ninth Amendments.

Which Committee/Commission suggested a formula based on “consumption expenditure” for identifying BPL families in India?

  1. Tendulkar Committee

  2. N. C. Saxena Commission

  3. Planning Commission of India

  4. Wadhwa Committee


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Suresh Tendulkar headed a committee named as Suresh Tendulkar Committee to know about the people living under poverty line in India.

Who among the following were the members of the Constitution Drafting Committee?

  1. N. M. Rao
  2. D. P. Khaitan
  3. S. M. Saadullah
  4. K. M. Munshi
  1. Only 2 and 3

  2. Only 2 and 4

  3. Only 2, 3 and 4

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

On 29th August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members, as below:

1. D. P. Khaitan (T. Krishnamachari, after Khaitan's death in 1948)
2. N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar (a distinguished jurist)
4. K. M. Munshi (a distinguished jurist)
5. Syyed Mohd. Saadulla
6. N. Madhav Rao (in place of B. L. Mitra)  

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Government of India Act, 1919 further divided the central subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved.
  2. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor and his executive council; the reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both of these

  4. Neither of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong: The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced the ‘concept of dyarchy’ by relaxing the control of centre over the provinces.  Statement 2 is also wrong: The transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council; the reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council.

Which of the following are the reasons for India's burgeoning current account deficit in 2012 - 13?

  1. Inelastic demand for gold
  2. Excessive import of crude oil
  3. Fiscal crisis in European countries
  4. High inflation
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 1, 2 and 3

  3. Only 2 and 3

  4. All 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The current account is that part of Balance of Payment (BOP) account which details the balance of goods and services traded with the rest of the world. The excess of imports of goods and services over their export is referred to as Current Account Deficit (CAD). Robust demand for gold and continuing high crude oil prices (which India imports a lot), along with decelerating growth in emerging and developing economies, are responsible for adversely affecting India's trade balance. High rate of inflation persisting in the economy attracts cheap imports and makes export costly in the international market. High fiscal deficit run by the government is one factor behind the high inflation.

Consider the following statements:

  1. In order to contain the problem of tax evasion, the Government of India had decided to introduce GAAR or General Anti Avoidance Rules.
  2. GAAR empowers the Revenue Authorities to deny tax benefits of transactions or arrangements, which do not have any commercial substance or consideration other than achieving the tax benefit.

Which of the statements given above is/are true?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong. GAAR is a step to contain the problem of tax avoidance, not to contain tax evasion. Tax avoidance is generally the legal exploitation of the tax regime to one's own advantage, to attempt to reduce the amount of tax that is payable by means that are within the law whilst making a full disclosure of the material information to the tax authorities. Statement 2 is perfectly correct: GAAR is a concept which generally empowers the Revenue Authorities in a country to deny the tax benefits of transactions or arrangements which do not have any commercial substance or consideration other than achieving the tax benefit.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Sunspots always appear in pairs.
  2. Mars takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Dark, cool areas called sunspots appear on the photosphere of the sun. They always appear in pairs and are intense magnetic fields that break through the surface of the sun. Statement 2 is incorrect. Mercury takes more time to complete one rotation on its axis than to complete one revolution around the sun due to its nearness to the sun.

Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to Jainism?

  1. Adinath was the first Jain Tirthankara.
  2. The last Tirthankara of Jains was Mahavira, who lived from 599 BCE to 527 BCE.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both of these

  4. Neither of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Rishabha (also known as Adinath) was the first Tirthankara of the Jains. The last Tirthankara, Mahavira, lived from 599 to 527 BCE.

Sleeping on the left side is useful because

  1. the heart is found in the left side of our body cavity

  2. the left side is pressed and gives relaxation to the right side

  3. it gives maximum relaxation to the muscles of the right side and keeps the liver warm and relaxed, and improves bile secretion

  4. the organs of left side are smaller than those on the right side


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Sleeping on the left side is useful because it gives maximum relaxation to the muscles of the right side and keeps the liver warm and relaxed, and improves bile secretion.

Who among the following was declared to be the first African-American and the first woman in more than a century to appear on US paper currency?

  1. Eleanor Holmes Norton

  2. Harriet Tubman

  3. Michelle Obama

  4. Barbara Jordan

  5. Shirley Chisholm


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct answer is (2). 

The pentavalent vaccine administered by the government in Tamil Nadu provides vaccination against which of these diseases?

  1. Haemophilus Influenza B
  2. Tetanus
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Pertussis
  5. Measles
  1. 1, 3 and 4

  2. 2, 3 and 5

  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

GOI has decided to introduce the pentavalent vaccine in Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Pentavalent vaccine is given by an intra muscular injection provides protection to a child from 5 life-threatening diseases - Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b like pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, epiglottitis, septic arthritis etc.). 

Who among the following has not been a recipient of Magsaysay Award?

  1. Jayprakash Narayan

  2. T. N. Seshan

  3. Aruna Roy

  4. Harsh Mander


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Jayprakash Narayan - 1965 (Category: Public Service) T. N. Seshan - 1996 (Category: Government Service) Aruna Roy - 2000 (Category: Community Leadership)

Who among the following Indians was the President of the International Court of Justice at Hague?

  1. R. S. Pathak

  2. P. N. Bhagwati

  3. A. N. Mullah

  4. Shree Nagendra Singh


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Maharaj Sri Nagendra Singh was president of the International Court of Justice. Singh served on the United Nations International Law Commission from 1967 to 1972. He joined the International Court of Justice in 1973 and was its presiding judge between February 1985 and February 1988. 

Which of the following are parts of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP)?

  1. Trishul
  2. Nag
  3. Brahmos
  4. Prithvi
  5. Sagarika
  1. Only 1 and 4

  2. Only 1, 3, 4 and 5

  3. Only 1, 3 and 4

  4. Only 1, 2 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Integrated Guided Missile Development Program (IGMDP) is an Indian Ministry of Defence program for the research and development of a comprehensive range of missiles. Four projects were born under the IGMDP: Short range surface-to-surface missile (code-named Prithvi) Short range low-level surface-to-air missile (code-named Trishul) Medium range surface-to-air missile (code-named Akash) and Third-generation anti-tank missile (code-named Nag). The Agni missile was initially conceived in the IGMDP as a technology demonstrator project in the form of a re-entry vehicle, and was later upgraded to a ballistic missile with different ranges.

Where is Baikonur Cosmodrome Space Launch Facility located?

  1. Russia

  2. Kazakhstan

  3. China

  4. Kyrgyzstan


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Baikonur Cosmodrome is the world's first and largest operational space launch facility. It is located in the desert steppe of Kazakhstan. It is leased by the Kazakh government to Russia.

A space launch facility or space port is a site for launching (or receiving) spacecraft. There are 4 space launch facilities in US. They are:
  • Cape Canaveral Air Force Station, Florida
  •  Kennedy Space Centre, Florida
  •  Edwards Air Force Base, California 
  • Mojave Spaceport, California
There is one space launch facility in China which is the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Centre. There are only the above six spaceports in the world and there is no spaceport in Russia and Kyrgyzstan. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Arrange the following Grand Slams in the chronological order in which they take place every year.

  1. Australian Open
    1. Wimbledon
    2. French Open
    3. US Open
  1. 1, 4, 3, 2

  2. 4, 2, 3, 1

  3. 1, 3, 2, 4

  4. 4, 1, 3, 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The sequence of these events is related to the East-to-West location of the respective host countries/continents.

Chandragupta Maurya was the follower of which religion for major part of his life?

  1. Ajivika sect

  2. Buddhism

  3. Hinduism

  4. Jainism


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Emperor Chandragupta Maurya followed Hinduism for major part of his life. He embraced Jainism after retiring. At an older age, Chandragupta renounced his throne and material possessions to join a wandering group of Jain monks. Chandragupta was a disciple of Acharya Bhadrabahu. It is said that in his last days, he observed the rigorous but self-purifying Jain ritual of santhara, i.e. fast unto death, at Shravana Belgola in Karnataka. Hence, the correct option is 3.

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. SAARC - Dhaka
  2. ASEAN - Jakarta
  3. International Committee of the Red Cross - Geneva
  4. INTERPOL - Lyon
  1. Only 1 and 2

  2. Only 2 and 3

  3. Only 2, 3 and 4

  4. Only 2 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The headquarters of SAARC are located at Kathmandu, Nepal. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an organisation of South Asian nations, which was established on 8 December, 1985, when the governments of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka formally adopted its charter providing for the promotion of economic and social progress, cultural development within the South Asia region and also for friendship and cooperation with other developing countries.

Consider the following statements related to the Mansabdari System under the Mughals:

  1. During the reign of Akbar, the system of dual ranking was not in existence and hence, only 'Zat' ranks were given to the Mansabdars.
  2. The Sawar ranks were allotted to the Mansabdars under Jahangir for the first time.

Which of the following is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

During later years of his reign, Akbar introduced the rank of ‘Zat’ and ‘Sawar’ in the Mansabdari system. Different views have been expressed regarding these terms. According to Blochmann, every mansabdar had to maintain as many soldiers as were indicated by his rank of Zat’ while the rank of ‘sawar’ indicated the number of horsemen among them. Irvin expressed the view that Zat indicated the actual number of cavalry under a mansabdar besides other soldiers while sawar was an additional honour. However, during the reign of Akbar, the system of dual ranking was also there. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. Also, 2 is incorrect as Sawar was introduced in the reign of Akbar.

Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located on the banks of River Vaigai.
  2. According to a legend, nectar from Lord Shiva's locks fell here, and hence, it is known as 'nectar city'.
  3. It served as the capital for Pandya Kings.

Which place are we referring to?

  1. Ramesvaram

  2. Sravanabelagola

  3. Madurai

  4. Mahabalipuram


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Ramesvaram is an island at the southern tip of Gulf of Mannar and is known as the Varanasi of South. It was founded by Cholas and houses the significant Ramanathswamy Temple. Sravanabelagola is an ancient and important Jain pilgrimage centre. It is located in Karnataka. Mahabalipuram, also Mamallapuram, was a 7th century port city of the South Indian dynasty of the Pallavas around 60 km south from the city of Chennai in Tamil Nadu.

Kapila was the earliest exponent of the

  1. Samkhya School

  2. Vaisheshika School

  3. Mimamsa School

  4. Vedanta School


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Kapila was the earliest exponent of the Samkhaya School. Samkhya is one of the six schools of Hindu philosophy and classical Indian philosophy. It is regarded as one of the oldest philosophical systems in India.

Match the following:

 
List - I (Railway Zone) List - II (H.Q.)
A. North Eastern

B. South Central

C. East Central

D. South Western | 1. Hubli

2. Hajipur

3. Gorakhpur

4. Secundrabad |

  1. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  2. A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1

  3. A - 2, B - 3,C - 1, D - 4

  4. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Gorakhpur has North Eastern railways, Secundrabad has South Central railways, Hajipur has East Central railways and Hubli has South-Western railways. All the major railway stations are in Gorakhpur, Secundrabad, Hajipur and Hubli.

Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935, passed after the deliberations of the third round table conference.

  1. The representatives of the Indian Provinces were to be elected and those of Indian States were to be nominated by the Governor-General.
  2. It introduced provincial autonomy and diarchy at the centre.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The deliberations of the round table conference resulted in the Government of India Act, 1935. The main features of the Act were:

  1. A Federation of India was promised for, comprising both provinces and states. While the representatives of Indian provinces were to be elected, those of the Indian States were to be nominated by the ruling princes (Hence, statement ‘1’ is incorrect). The provisions of the Act establishing the federal central government were not to go into operation until a specified number of rulers of states had signed Instrument of Accession. Since this did not happen, the central government continued to function in accordance with the 1919 Act and only the part of the 1935 Act dealing with the provincial governments went into operation.
  2. The provinces were given autonomy with respect to subjects delegated to them. Dyarchy came to an end, and the provincial governments now had full responsibility. Hence, statement ‘2’ is correct.
  3. Sind was made a separate province.
  4. Separate electorates were continued.

Consider the following statements:

  1. A small part of Mysore territory was put in the hands of the king of Wodeyar dynasty.
  2. The British signed a treaty with the new king of Mysore.
  3. Lord Wellesley constructed a grand mansion known as Government House.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct because the Wodeyar dynasty was an Indian royal dynasty that ruled the Kingdom of Mysore from 1399 to 1947 until the independence of India from British rule and the subsequent unification of the Indian dominion and princely states into the Republic of India.  Statement 2: It is incorrect because the Siege of Seringapatam (5 April - 4 May 1799) was the final confrontation of the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Mysore.  Statement 3: It is correct because Lord Wellesley constructed a grand mansion, known as Government House, between 1799 and 1803. The mansion remained in use until the capital moved from Calcutta to Delhi in 1912. 

Bal Gangadhar Tilak published two newspapers,

  1. both in English

  2. both in Marathi

  3. Kesari in Marathi, and Mahratta in English

  4. Mahratta in Marathi, and Kesari in English


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, 1856 - 1920, was an Indian nationalist leader. He was a journalist in Pune, and in his newspapers, the Marathi-language Kesari [lion] and the English-language Mahratta, he set forth his nationalist ideals. 

What is the name of the Panama law firm whose sets of millions of confidential documents, comprising detailed information on more than 2,14,000 offshore companies, were leaked in 2016?

  1. Ballard & Ballard

  2. Ruiz and Aleman

  3. Cambra La Duke

  4. Mossack Fonseca

  5. Squire Sanders


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Mossack Fonseca

In the light of events that occurred in the Karachi Session (1931) of Indian National Congress, find the incorrect statement.

  1. The resolutions on Fundamental Rights and National Economic Policy, which were drafted by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, were passed.

  2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was endorsed by the Congress.

  3. The session was presided over by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.

  4. The goal of Poorna Swaraj was reiterated.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The congress adopted a resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy which represented the Party’s Social, Economic and Political programmes. It was later known as Karachi Resolution. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was endorsed by the Congress in the Karachi Session of 1931, that was held from March 26-31. Option (3) is incorrect: The Karachi Session was presided over by Sardar Patel. In the same line, the Congress endorsed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and reiterated the goal of "Poorna Swaraj".

 

Which rocket laboratory coming under ISRO has manufactured the world’s lightest material called ‘silica aerogel’ which could prove immensely helpful in numerous usages including providing thermal resistance to Indian soldiers posted in the Siachen area?

  1. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota

  2. ISRO Satellite Centre, Bengaluru

  3. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram

  4. Space Applications Centre, Ahmedabad

  5. Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre, Thiruvananthapuram


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram

The 5th schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states,

  1. Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland

  2. Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland

  3. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

  4. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The 5th schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state, except in the 4 states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram which have been dealt separately in the 6th schedule of the Indian Constitution. Hence, option '3' is correct.

The main cause of Black Hole Incident was that

  1. the British Company supported Shaukat Jung, the rival of Siraj ud Daulah

  2. the British Company started making forts in Bengal without the permission of Siraj ud Daulah

  3. the British people gave shelter to a rich businessman who was demanded by Siraj ud Daulah

  4. the British Company was not ready to recognise Siraj ud Daulah as the Nawab


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The main cause of Black Hole Incident was that the British Company started making forts in Bengal without the permission of Siraj ud Daulah. Black Hole Incident is the name given to an event that took place during Nawab Siraj ud Daulah's capture of Calcutta on 20 June, 1756.

Which of the following bills was not passed in the Joint Sittings of both the Houses of Parliament?

  1. Hindu Marriage Act (1955)

  2. Dowry Prohibition Act (1961)

  3. Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978)

  4. Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In case of a deadlock between the two houses or in a case where more than six months lapse in the other house, the President may summon a joint session of the two houses which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the deadlock is resolved by simple majority. Until now, only three bills: the Dowry Prohibition Act (1961), the Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill (1978) and the Prevention of Terrorism Bill (2002) have been passed at joint sessions.  

Which is the correct serial order of Alauddin's military expeditions?

  1. Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Jalore, Malwa, Chittor

  2. Malwa, Jalore, Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Chittor

  3. Gujarat, Chittor, Jalore, Malwa, Ranthambhor

  4. Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Chittor, Malwa, Jalore


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Gujarat, Ranthambhor, Chittor, Malwa, Jalore

Consider the following statements:

  1. By the Regulating Act of 1773, the proprietary rights of the East India Company were safeguarded.
  2. By the Act of 1792, Governor General and Council were invested with power and authority to frame regulations for the provincial courts and councils.
  3. The Eighteenth Century India characterized the state incorporated in the ruler who led the army.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1: It is correct because Regulating Act of 1773 later known as the East India Company Act 1773. The Act recognised the Company's political functions and clearly established the sovereignty over the settlement and the territories won by war, vested in the Crown.  Statement 2: It is incorrect because one of the provisions of the amending act of 1781 was that this act empowered the Governor-General and council to frame, from time to time, regulations for the provincial courts and councils. Statement 3: It is correct because trading rivalries brought European powers to India. The Dutch, the English, the French and the Danes established trading posts in India in the early 17th century. Trading rivalries among the seafaring European powers brought other European powers to India. 

Which of the following commissions are constitutional bodies?

  1. National Commission for Minorities
  2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes
  3. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
  4. National Human Rights Commission
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 2, 3 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Option 1 is wrong because National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body enacted by the Parliament by an Act, National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Option 2 is correct because National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body which has been constituted under Article 338 of the Constitution of India as amended by the Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act, 2003.  Option 3 is incorrect because National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is an autonomous statutory body established on 12 October, 1993 under the provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Option 4 is incorrect because National Commission for Minorities and National Human Rights Commission are the statutory bodies.

Consider the following facts.

  1. Besides the Union Public Service Commission, it is mentioned in Article 315 of the Indian Constitution that each state must have an independent State Public Service Commission.
  2. The Chairman and members of UPSC are appointed by the Prime Minister of India and the Chairman and members of State Public Service Commissions are appointed by respective Chief Ministers of the states, as specified in Article 318 of the Indian Constitution.

Which of the above is/are true?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 315 of the Constitution provides that if two or more States agree that there should be a Joint Public Service Commission for them and their legislatures pass resolutions to that effect, then Parliament may by law appoint a Joint State Public Service Commission to serve their needs. According to Article 318 of the India Constitution, the Chairman and members of UPSC or a Joint PSC are appointed by the President and those of a State PSC are appointed by the respective State Governors.

Under which of the following Amendments were the privy purses of erstwhile rulers of princely states abolished?

  1. 29th

  2. 28th

  3. 27th

  4. 26th


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

'Privy purse' refers to payments made by the Indian Government to the rulers of erstwhile princely states as a part of their agreement merge with the Indian state, whereby they lost all their ruling rights. The 26th Amendment, enacted in 1971, amended article 366 of the Indian Constitution, leading to the abolition of privy purses of erstwhile royal families. The 27th Amendment Act (1972) led to the reorganization of Mizoram into a Union Territory with a legislature and council of ministers. The 28th Amendment Act (1972) rationalized civil service rules to bring in uniformity among the appointments made prior to and post independence. The 29th Amendment Act (1972) amended Schedule 9 of the Indian Constitution and placed land reform acts and amendments to this act under Schedule 9.

The Treaty of Sreerangapatanam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo-Mysore war. Between whom was this treaty signed?

  1. Tipu Sultan and Lord Cornwallis

  2. Tipu Sultan and Lord Minto

  3. Tipu Sultan and Lord Wellesley

  4. Tipu Sultan and Lord Canning


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Treaty of Sreerangapatanam was signed after the defeat of Tipu Sultan in the Third Anglo-Mysore war. The treaty was signed between Tipu Sultan and Lord Cornwallis.  

Which one of the following activities was common to both Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and Madan Mohan Malviya?

  1. Opposition to the principles of rule of majority

  2. Supporting the continuance of the British rule in India

  3. Opposition to the policies of Indian National Congress

  4. Establishing education institutions for higher education


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A real turning point in the education came due to the efforts of educationists like Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya and Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, who championed the cause of modern learning and supported British efforts to spread it.

All the tax and non tax receipts, recoveries of loans and other receipts which do not create corresponding payment liabilities are credited to the

  1. Consolidated Fund of India

  2. Contingency Fund of India

  3. Public Accounts of India

  4. Reserve Bank of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Constitution of India provides for the creation of the Consolidated Fund of India in Article 266. All received revenues, raised loans and all money received by the Government in payment of loans are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India. The expenditures of the Government are incurred from this fund.

Consider the following statements regarding 'Sugar Pricing Policy' of the Government:

  1. 20% of sugar produced by mills is requisitioned by Government compulsorily in every season at fixed prices, which is distributed under PDS.
  2. Free sugar (80%) is allowed to be sold as per the quota released by the Centre under the Regulated Release Mechanism.

Which of these statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

According to Government's Sugar Pricing Policy, 10% of sugar produced by mills is requisitioned by Government compulsorily in every season at fixed prices, which is distributed under PDS. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.) Free sugar (90%) is allowed to be sold as per the quota released by the Centre under the Regulated Release Mechanism. (Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect.)

The objective of which of the following organizations is to promote cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers and has farmers as its main members?

  1. NAFED

  2. TRIFED

  3. NABARD

  4. PMFAI


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

NAFED stands for National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. It was established on 2nd October, 1958 and is registered under the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act. NAFED was set up with the object to promote cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor?

  1. The corridor passes from Dadri in National Capital Region of Delhi to Mumbai Port in Maharashtra.
  2. The length of the corridor is the longest in Gujarat.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor is a mega infra-structure project to which Japan is also providing financial and technical aids. The project covers a length of 1483 km between Delhi and Mumbai passing through the five states and one union territory - U.P, National Capital Region of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra, and not through Madhya Pradesh. It has end terminals at Dadri in the National Capital Region of Delhi and Jawaharlal Nehru Port near Mumbai and not Mumbai Port. Distribution of length of the corridor is Rajasthan (39%) Gujarat (38%) Haryana (10%) Maharashtra (10%) Uttar Pradesh (1.5%) National Capital Region of Delhi (1.5%) Therefore, the longest length of corridor is in Rajasthan and not Gujarat. Hence, neither of the given statements is correct.

In which of the following Conferences of Parties (COPs) to the UNFCCC were the 'flexible mechanisms' of the Kyoto Protocol devised and adopted?

  1. COP-6, Bonn

  2. COP-7, Marrakech

  3. COP-8, New Delhi

  4. COP-9, Milan


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The 'flexible mechanisms' of the Kyoto Protocol were included for the first time in the COP-6, held in Bonn, Germany. (Hence, option '1' is correct.) Flexible mechanisms or Kyoto mechanisms refer to Emissions Trading, the Clean Development Mechanism and Joint Implementation.

Which of the following multilateral treaties is to protect the cultural property in the event of armed conflict?

  1. Geneva Convention

  2. Hague Conference (1985)

  3. Hague Convention (1954)

  4. Basel Convention


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Option '1' is wrong as Geneva Convention is an international law for the humanitarian treatment of the prisoners of war. Option '2' is wrong as Hague Convention (1996) covers parental responsibility and measures for the protection of children. Option '3' is correct as Hague Convention (1954), signed in 1954, requires its signatories to protect cultural property in war. Option '4' is wrong as Basel Convention is for the control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal. Hence, option '3' is correct.

The Expert Groups and their recommendations for estimating poverty and BPL families are given below:

  1. Tendulkar Committee recommended to adopt MRP based estimates of consumption expenditure as the basis for future poverty lines.
  2. S. R. Hashim Committee has been set up to review the methodology for conducting BPL Census in rural areas.
  3. An Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. N. C. Saxena has been constituted to recommend the methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas.

Which of these statements is not wrong in this context?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 3

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Tendulkar Committee, while acknowledging the multidimensional nature of poverty, recommended moving away from anchoring poverty lines to the calorie-intake norm to adopting MRP based estimates of consumption expenditure as the basis for future poverty lines. (Statement 1 is correct.)

A Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. N.C. Saxena set up to review the methodology for conducting BPL Census in rural areas has recommended automatic exclusion of some privileged sections and automatic inclusion of certain deprived and vulnerable sections of society, and a survey for the remaining population to rank them on a scale of 10. (Statement 2 is incorrect.)

An Expert Group under S. R. Hashim has been constituted by the Planning Commission to recommend the methodology for identification of BPL families in urban areas. (Statement 3 is also incorrect.)

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

 
List - I List - II
A. Administrative Courts

B. Ombudsman

C. Procurator System

D. Parliamentary Commissioner| 1. U.K.

2. U.S.S.R.

3. Sweden

4. France|

  1. A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  4. A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Administrative Courts, Ombudsman, Procurator System and Parliamentary Commissioner are in France, Sweden, U.S.S.R, and U.K, respectively. Sweden has, since 1882, a Parliamentary ombudsman office, the oldest surviving element of which is the Justice Ombudsman. The Procurator General of the U.S.S.R. was the highest functionary of the Office of Public Procurator of the USSR, responsible for the whole system of offices of public procurators and supervision of their activities on the territory of the Soviet Union. Administrative courts in France supervise the government and handle complaints.

Justice Wadhwa Committee is related to the functioning of which of the following?

  1. Mid Day Meal Scheme

  2. Rashtriya Swastha Bima Yojna

  3. Indra Awas Yojna

  4. Public Distribution System


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Justice Wadhwa Committee, whose term was extended by six months in 2010, is reviewing the functioning of Public Distribution System. The Committee visited districts Cuddalore, Trichy, and Madurai, Karur, and the city of Chennai in the State of Tamil Nadu to study the Public Distribution System. The Committee also conducted public hearings at Chennai, Madurai and Trichy.

Which of the following is/are not the function(s) of the Food Corporation of India?

  1. To provide remunerative prices to the farmers
  2. To make food-grains available at reasonable prices, particularly to the vulnerable sections of the society
  3. To maintain buffer stocks as measure of food security
  4. To intervene in market for price stabilization
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 4

  3. 1 and 4

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Food Corporation of India was set up under the Food Corporation Act 1964, in order to fulfill the following objectives of the Food Policy:

  • Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers
  • Distribution of food-grains throughout the country for public distribution system
  • Maintaining satisfactory level of operational  and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure
National Food Security
In its 45 years of service to the nation, FCI has played a significant role in India's success in transforming the crisis management oriented food security into a stable security system. FCI's objectives are
  • to provide farmers remunerative prices
  • to make food-grains available at reasonable prices, particularly to vulnerable section of the society
  • to maintain buffer stocks as a measure of food security
  • to intervene in market for price stabilization
(Hence, all the four statements are correct.)
 

The decreasing order of percentage share of child population 2011 in rural India is

  1. UP, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Bihar

  2. Maharashtra, UP, Bihar, MP

  3. UP, Bihar, Rajasthan, MP

  4. Maharashtra, UP, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Percentage share of child population 2011 in rural India: UP-20.62, Bihar-14.37, Rajasthan-7.08, MP-6.92, West Bengal-6.41, Maharashtra-6.33, Andhra Pradesh-4.98, Gujarat-3.98, Karnataka-3.7, Odisha-3.69, Jharkhand-3.61, Asom-3.47, Tamil Nadu-3.11, Chhattisgarh-2.44, Haryana-1.91, Punjab-1.59, Kerala-1.49, Jammu and Kashmir-1.36.

Match the following:

 
List - I List - II
1. Article 25 A. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
2. Article 26 B. Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions
3. Article 27 C. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
4. Article 28 D. Freedom to manage religious affairs
  1. 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B

  2. 1 - A, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - B

  3. 1 - A, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - C

  4. 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Articles 25 to 28 deal with the right to freedom of religion. They also exhibit the secular character of the State. The list goes like this: Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs  Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion Article 28 - Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions

The gas produced by ONGC and a part of gas produced by the JV consortia are marketed by

  1. GAIL (India) Ltd.

  2. ONGC

  3. OIL

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The gas produced by ONGC and a part of gas produced by the JV consortia are marketed by GAIL (India) Ltd. 

The factors related to location and relief features, which determine the climate of India, are

  1. longitudinal extent
  2. distribution of land and water
  3. distance from the sea
  4. altitude
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 and 3

  3. 2, 3 and 4

  4. All of them


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The factors related to location and relief features, which determine the climate of India, are -

  1. Latitudinal extent (not longitudinal extent): The Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in east-west direction. 
  2. Distribution of land and water: India is flanked by the Indian Ocean on three sides in the south and girdled by a high and continuous mountain-wall in the north. 
  3. Distance from the sea: With a long coastline, large coastal areas have an equable climate. Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. 
  4. Altitude: Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are cooler than places on the plains. For example, Agra and Darjeeling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjeeling. 

To which state of India does the Burrakatha folk art form belong?

  1. Uttar Pradesh

  2. Andhra Pradesh

  3. Madhya Pradesh

  4. Himachal Pradesh


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

'Burrakatha' is a folk art form, in which a Hindu mythological story or contemporary social problems are depicted by dance, prayers, solo drama, songs, poems and jokes.

'Badland topography' is best exhibited in the form of the ravines cut by 'gully erosion' of soil on the banks of the river

  1. Narmada

  2. Chambal

  3. Damodar

  4. Barak


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Chambal River is a tributary of the Yamuna River in central India, and forms part of the greater Gangetic drainage system. Badland is a type of dry terrain where softer sedimentary rocks and clay-rich soils have been extensively eroded by wind and water. Badland topography is a characteristic feature of the Chambal valley.

Renewable energy provides power from any source that can be replenished. In this context, which non-conventional sources have been harnessed from water for production of Renewable Energy in India?

  1. Wave Energy
  2. Ocean Thermal Energy
  3. Tidal Energy
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. 1 and 2

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Power Generation Projects based on Wave Energy are not yet commercially established in India.

Ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) uses the difference between the temperatures of ocean water levels to run a heat engine and produce useful work, usually in the form of electricity.
India joined the tidal power wave with the approval of a commercial-scale tidal power plant in the Gulf of Kutch. 
Therefore, option (2) is the correct answer.

Which of the following regions of India has the potentiality of harnessing tidal power?

  1. Palk Strait

  2. Gulf of Khambhat

  3. Gulf of Mannar

  4. Kerala Coast


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Gulf of Khambat has the potentiality of harnessing tidal power. The Gulf of Cambay and the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat on the west coast have the maximum tidal range of 11 m and 8 m with average tidal range of 6.77 m and 5.23 m, respectively. The Ganges Delta in the Sundarbans has an average tidal range of 2.97 m. 

Red sanders is the species listed as endangered by the IUCN for its overexploitation.

Which of these statements about this species is/are correct?

  1. It is found in Tawakoni forest.
  2. It is found in Kadapa district.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Red sanders or red sandalwood is a species of Pterocarpus native to India. It is only found in south India in Kadapa and Chittoor on the Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh border. This species is listed as endangered by the IUCN because of overexploitation for its timber as this wood is used for furniture. Talakona forest is in Chittoor District of Andhra Pradesh, India where red sanders are grown. Hence, both the statements are correct.

A canyon is a deep ravine between cliffs often carved from the landscape by a river. The Grand Canyon of United States in the state of Arizona is carved by river

  1. Mississippi

  2. Colorado

  3. Rio Grande

  4. Mackenzie


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A canyon is a deep ravine between cliffs often carved from the landscape by a river. Rivers have a natural tendency to reach a baseline elevation, which is the same elevation as the body of water it will eventually drain into, forming a canyon. 

Which of the following facts is/are true about Decade Volcanoes?

  1. They are 16 in number.
  2. The Decade Volcanoes are identified by the International Association of Volcanology and Chemistry of Earth's Interior.
  3. Mount Fuji in Japan, an active strato-volcano, is classified under the Decade Volcanoes.
  4. These volcanoes have a history of large and destructive eruptions and are situated near populated areas.
  1. 2, 3 and 4

  2. 1, 2 and 4

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Mount Fuji is the highest mountain in Japan, an active strato-volcano which last erupted in 1707. Today, Mount Fuji is an international destination for tourism and mountain-climbing. It is not included among the Decade Volcanoes, a list of volcanoes which are potential threats to population living around them.

Which of the following pairs is matched incorrectly?

  1. Hundru Falls - River Subarnarakha

  2. Chitrakoot Falls - River Indravati

  3. Pong Dam - River Ravi

  4. Bhakra Nangal Dam - River Satluj


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam, is an earth-fill embankment dam on the Beas River just upstream of Talwara in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India. The purpose of the dam is water storage for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation.

To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria:

  1. It must contain at least 0.5% or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemics.
  2. It has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.

Which of these statements is/are not true?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. The concept of biodiversity hotspots was originated by Norman Myers in two articles in “The Environmentalist”. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers 2000 edition of the hotspot-map, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation.(Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.)

Which of the following are included among the mandates of the Zoological Survey of India?

  1. Digitalization of data on Indian fauna and making it available in a searchable format
  2. Taxonomic and monographic studies on selected animal groups
  3. Identification of Red List species
  4. Capacity building in nomenclature, specimen collection, preservation and maintenance through training programmes
  1. 1, 2 and 4

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 1, 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Zoological Survey of India was established in 1916 and is a pre-eminent research institution under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Its headquarters are in Kolkata with 16 regional stations located in different parts of the country. The ZSI is tasked with survey and exploration of faunal wealth of India. All the given are the mandates (high priority) of the Zoological Survey of India. 

Consider the following statements regarding Keoladeo National Park:

  1. It is one of the 'Ramsar' Wetlands of International Importance.
  2. It is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage List.

Select the statement(s) which is/are not true.

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Keoladeo National Park or Keoladeo Ghana National Park, formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India, is a famous avifauna sanctuary that sees thousands of rare and highly endangered birds such as the Siberian Crane which come here mostly during the winter season. Over 230 species of birds are known to have made the National Park their home. The area was designated as a Ramsar site under the Wetland Convention in October 1981. In 1985, the Park was declared a World Heritage Site under the World Heritage Convention. Hence, both the statements are correct.

Which of the following is/are biodiversity hotspot site(s)?

  1. Horn of Africa

  2. Northwest Australia

  3. Coastal regions of southwest China

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Option '1' is correct. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. There are 25 hotspots with nine other possible candidates. Horn of Africa is one such hotspot. Option '2' is wrong. Southwest Australia is a biodiversity hotspot. Option '3' is wrong. Mountain of Southwest China is a hotspot. The list of these hotspots is North and Central America

  1. California Floristic Province
  2. Caribbean Islands
  3. Madrean pine-oak woodlands
  4. Mesoamerica South America
  5. Atlantic Forest
  6. Cerrado
  7. Chilean Winter Rainfall-Valdivian Forests
  8. Tumbes-Chocó-Magdalena
  9. Tropical Andes Europe and Central Asia
  10. Caucasus
  11. Irano-Anatolian
  12. Mediterranean Basin
  13. Mountains of Central Asia Africa
  14. Cape Floristic Region
  15. Coastal Forests of Eastern Africa
  16. Eastern Afromontane
  17. Guinean Forests of West Africa
  18. Horn of Africa
  19. Madagascar and the Indian Ocean Islands
  20. Maputaland-Pondoland-Albany
  21. Succulent Karoo South Asia
  22. Eastern Himalaya, India
  23. Indo-Burma, India and Myanmar
  24. Western Ghats, India
  25. Sri Lanka East Asia and Asia-Pacific
  26. East Melanesian Islands
  27. Japan
  28. Mountains of Southwest China Polynesia-Micronesia
  29. New Caledonia
  30. New Zealand
  31. Philippines
  32. Southwest Australia
  33. Sundaland
  34. Wallacea

'Refuge' crops are non-Bt crops planted alongside Bt-crops by farmers to

  1. make soil more fertile

  2. discourage development of resistance in insects/pests against Bt-crops

  3. serve the purpose of subsistence for the farmers and their families

  4. cater to a wider market with both Bt and non-Bt varieties


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Refuge crops are non-genetically modified crops planted alongside Bt variety crops so as to prevent or slow down the development of resistance in crop-harming insects/pests by encouraging mating of species across both crops.

The 'Montreaux Record' is a register of

  1. wetland sites under the threat of anthropogenic activities

  2. endangered species of tropical and sub-tropical fauna

  3. languages spoken in previous three generations of mankind and now extinct

  4. coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Montreaux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Which of the following gases is/are responsible for the formation of brown haze dome above or plume downwind of cities?

  1. Sulphur dioxide
  2. Nitrogen oxide
  3. Carbon dioxide
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 only

  4. 2 only


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Nitrogen oxides (NOX), especially nitrogen dioxide, are emitted from high temperature combustion and can be seen as the brown haze dome above or plume downwind of cities.

Choose the best suitable statement(s) from the following about a balanced ecosystem:

  1. Number of organisms at all levels is equal.
  2. Amount of biomass at all trophic levels is equal.
  3. Organisms are independent.
  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 only

  3. 3 only

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A pyramid of biomass is the amount of energy contained in biomass, at different trophic levels for a given time and higher trophic levels would have less total biomass than those below, because some energy is lost in the transfer from one level to the next. Thus, the amount of biomass at all trophic levels cannot be equal. A pyramid of numbers represents the number of organisms in each trophic level. For upward pyramids, the bottom level would be of quite large organisms. But sometimes the pyramid of numbers might be inverted. Then, the number of organisms at lower level would be less than that at higher level. Thus, the number of organisms at all levels also cannot be equal. An ecosystem is made up of all the living animals and plants and the non-living matter in a particular place, like a forest or lake. All the living things in an ecosystem depend on all the other things - living and non-living for continued survival - for food supplies and other needs. Thus, a balanced ecosystem is one in which the amount of energy synthesized and utilized is nearly equal. 

Name of some nutrients are given below. Which of these can be provided by biofertilizers?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  1. 1 only

  2. 1 and 2 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Fertilizers enhance the growth of plants. They provide three main macronutrients: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P) and Potassium (K). Even biofertilizers can provide all the three nutrients.

Which of the following are the man-made causes of soil erosion?

  1. Use of improper ploughing methods
  2. Practice of leaving roots of crop in the field after harvest
  3. Practicing trash farming
  4. Use of heavy machines
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 1 and 4 only

  3. 1, 3 and 4 only

  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Leaving the stubble or crop residue essentially in place on the land as a surface cover during a fallow period prevents soil erosion. Similarly, trash farming is a method of cultivation in which the soil is loosened by subsurface tillage or other methods that leave stubble and other vegetation residues in the field and it prevents soil erosion. However, use of heavy machines leads to soil compaction and reduction in infiltration of rainwater. The rainwater then flows heavily as runoff and washes away the soil.

Consider the following statements about alachlor:

  1. It is a pesticide.
  2. It is used for the control of weeds and grasses.
  3. It is slightly toxic.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. Only 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong because alachlor is a herbicide used to control the growth of broadleaf weeds and grasses in corn and many other crops. Statement 2 is correct because it mixes well with other herbicides. It is used mainly to control annual grasses and broadleaf weeds in corn (maize), soybeans and peanuts. Statement 3 is correct. Alachlor is slightly toxic because, when it is exposed to levels above the maximum contaminant level (MCL), there occurs slight skin and eye irritation and at lifetime exposure to levels above the MCL, it causes potential damage to liver, kidney, spleen, lining of nose and eyelids.

Excess of sodium thiopental in the body can cause

  1. Alzheimer's disease
  2. damage to the foetus
  3. hypertension
  4. headache
  1. Only 1 and 3

  2. Only 2, 3 and 4

  3. Only 1, 2 and 4

  4. All of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

 It does not cause Alzheimer's disease. 

NATRIP is an organisation set up for which of the following?

  1. To support development of automotive hubs in the country

  2. To facilitate investments in road transport sector

  3. To promote auto-components industry

  4. To create facilities for testing of vehicles


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

NATRIP is an organisation set up to create facilities for testing the vehicles. National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project, the largest and one of the most significant initiatives in Automotive sector so far, represents a unique joining of hands between the Government of India, a number of State Governments and Indian Automotive Industry to create a state of the art Testing, Validation and R&D infrastructure in the country.

Which of the following regions do not receive any rainfall during the advancing monsoon season?

  1. Lahul-Spiti of Himachal Pradesh
  2. Coromandel Coast
  3. Great Indian Desert
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Great Indian Desert sometimes receives poor and erratic rainfall during the advancing monsoon season. But Lahul-Spiti region does not experience ANY rainfall in advancing monsoon season due to its extreme continentality (location is too interior for the moisture-laden winds to encroach) and Coromandel coast also does not receive ANY rainfall. It lies on the leeward side (rain-shadow area) of the Western Ghats because of which it does not receive any rainfall in summer due to the south-west monsoon.

Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their liquid fuel consumption.

  1. USA, Russia, China, Japan, India

  2. USA, Russia, Japan, China, India

  3. USA, China, Japan, India, Russia

  4. USA, China, Russia, India, Japan


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Liquid fuels include petroleum derived from crude and non-petroleum products like ethanol and biodiesel. USA's consumption - 18.48 million barrels per day China's consumption - 9.86 million barrels per day Japan's consumption - 5.11 million barrels per day India's consumption - 3.48 million barrels per day Russia's consumption - 3.09 million barrels per day

Elisa test and Western Blot test are connected with the diagnosis of

  1. AIDS

  2. Cancer

  3. Leprosy

  4. Meningitis


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Elisa test and Western Blot test are connected with the diagnosis of AIDS. In an ELISA test, a person's serum is diluted 400-fold and applied to a plate to which HIV antigens have been attached. If antibodies to HIV are present in the serum, they may bind to these HIV antigens. The Western Blot is an antibody detection test. 

The 'Gram Stain Test' is useful in classifying two distinct types of bacteria based on the structural differences of their

  1. cell wall

  2. cell membrane

  3. histone proteins

  4. endoplasmic reticulum


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Gram staining (or Gram's method) is a method of differentiating bacterial species into two large groups (Gram-positive and Gram-negative). It is based on the chemical and physical properties of their cell walls. (Hence, option '1' is correct). Primarily, it detects peptidoglycan, which is present in a thick layer in Gram-positive bacteria. A Gram-positive results in a purple/blue colour while a Gram negative results in a pink/red colour.

Consider the following statements regarding omega-3 fatty acids. Which of these statements is/are correct?

  1. Fish oil has become famous for its omega-3 fatty acid content but fish doesn't actually produce omega-3s.
  2. Their consumption may reduce the risk of coronary heart disease.
  3. They are essential fatty acids.
  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

N−3 fatty acids (popularly referred to as ù−3 fatty acids or omega-3 fatty acids) are essential unsaturated fatty acids with a double bond (C=C) starting after the third carbon atom from the end of the carbon chain. The omega-3 fatty acids are "essential" fatty acids because they are vital for normal metabolism and cannot be synthesized by the human body. (Hence, statement 3 is correct.) Omega-3 fatty acids are made by marine microalgae. These are then consumed by fish and accumulate to high levels in their internal organs. (Hence, statement 1 is correct.)  Some evidences suggest that people with certain circulatory problems, such as varicose veins, may benefit from their dietary consumption, which may stimulate blood circulation, increase the breakdown of fibrin, a compound involved in clot and scar formation, and may reduce blood pressure. Evidently, Omega-3 fatty acids reduce blood triglyceride levels and regular intake may reduce the risk of secondary and primary heart attack. (Hence, statement 2 is also correct.)

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Minamata convention : mercury
  2. Stockholm convention : persistant organic pollutants
  3. Basel convention : lead

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 1 and 3 only

  3. 2 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Basel Convention is for the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. It was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). It does not, however, address the movement of radioactive waste.

Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. Sundarbans are the second largest single block of tidal halophytic mangrove forests in the world.
  2. Mangrove forests have a great variety of trees.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is wrong. Sundarbans are the largest single block of tidal halophytic (not damaged by salinity) mangrove forests in the world. Statement 2 is wrong. Mangrove forests do not have variety of plants as they feature only a small number of tree species because they have a thick canopy, and undergrowth is mostly seedlings of the mangrove trees, like in Sundarbans, it is the sundari tree. Hence, both the statements are wrong and therefore, option (3) is correct.

Why is 'heavy water' preferred to 'normal water' for using as a coolant in a nuclear reactor?

  1. Heavy water has a higher specific heat capacity than normal water.

  2. Normal water becomes radioactive on coming in contact with the fast-moving neutrons during fission process whereas heavy water does not.

  3. Heavy water can also be used as a moderator in the same reactor.

  4. Heavy water has more viscosity than normal water.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Today, the term 'heavy water' is somewhat colloquial and pure heavy water for research and commercial use is generally commercially offered, and referred to, as deuterium oxide. It is not radioactive. It is about 11% denser than water, but otherwise physically and chemically it is similar. Heavy water has a higher specific heat capacity than normal water. The specific heat is the amount of heat per unit mass required to raise the temperature by one degree Celsius. A coolant in a nuclear reactor is used to remove heat from the nuclear reactor core and transfer it to electrical generators and the environment should have a high specific heat capacity. Thus, heavy water is ideal as a coolant in a nuclear reactor.

Which pair is not correctly matched?

  1. Vitamin K - Beriberi

  2. Vitamin C - Scurvy

  3. Iodine - Goitre

  4. Iron - Anaemia


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Beriberi is a disease caused by a vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency. There are two types of the disease: wet beriberi and dry beriberi. Wet beriberi affects the heart and circulatory system. In extreme cases, wet beriberi can cause heart failure. Dry beriberi damages the nerves and can lead to a loss of muscle strength and eventually, muscle paralysis. Beriberi can be life-threatening if it isn’t treated. Thus, (1) is incorrect.

Fish plates are used in railway tracks

  1. to keep the rails equidistant

  2. to prevent tracks from being distorted due to temperature fluctuation

  3. to control the speed of the train

  4. to connect two rails


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Fish plates are used in railway tracks to prevent tracks from being distorted due to temperature fluctuation. The joints also required to be lubricated, and wear at the fishplate (joint bar) mating surfaces needs to be rectified by shimming. For this reason, jointed track is not financially appropriate for heavily operated railroads.

Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Second Five Year Plan?

  1. Suez crisis
  2. Chinese aggression
  3. Failure of monsoons
  4. Denudation of forex reserves
  1. Only 1, 3 and 4

  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4

  3. Only 2 and 4

  4. Only 1 and 4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The period of Second Five Year Plan was from 1956 to 1961. The plan failed due to the following reasons:

  1. Suez crisis
  2. Rising inflation
  3. Failure of monsoons
  4. Denudation of forex reserves Chinese aggression was one of the reasons for the failure of the Third Five Year Plan.

Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because

  1. their blooming is controlled by low temperature

  2. they are sensitive to the phases of moon

  3. the desert insects eat away flowers during day time

  4. the desert insects are active during night time


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Correct Answer: their blooming is controlled by low temperature

Which of the following statements is /are correct?

  1. If the temperature of a semi conductor rises, its resistivity will decrease.
  2. Semi-conductors are used to split voltage between different parts of the electric circuit.
  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct. If the temperature of a semi conductor rises, its resistivity will decrease.  At a very low temperature, most charge carriers are inactive very few free electrons in the conduction band and free holes in the valence band, where these charge carriers can roam free and complete the circuit when an electrical source is connected to a bar of the material. As the temperature rises, the probability of finding free electrons in the conduction band and free holes in the valence band increases, resulting in more free charge carriers available, hence lower resistance. Statement (2) is incorrect. Resistors (protecting components) are used to split voltage between different parts of the electric circuit.

Which of the following are the biological measures of soil conservation?

  1. Agronomic practices
  2. Agrostological methods
  3. Dry farming practices
  4. Basin leaching
  5. Contour terracing
  1. 1, 2 and 3 only

  2. 4 and 5 only

  3. 3, 4 and 5 only

  4. 1, 2 and 4 only


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Practical methods of soil conservation are broadly grouped as follows: (A) Biological measures which are helpful in checking the soil erosion are:

  1. Agronomic practices;
  2. Agrostological methods;
  3. Dry farming practices(B) Mechanical or Engineering methods which are helpful in checking the soil erosion are:Basin leaching, Pan breaking, Sub soiling, Contour terracing, Contour trenching,

Terrace outlets, Gully control, Digging of ponds and reservoirs, and Stream bank protection.

Consider the following statements:

  1. Helium is used for respiration in deep water instead of nitrogen because it mixes lesser in blood than nitrogen.
  2. Hemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen than for carbon monoxide.
  3. Helium gas is filled in chips packets to make them fresh for a long time.

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. Only 1

  2. Only 2

  3. Only 1 and 3

  4. Only 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) Statement (1) is correct. For respiration by deep sea divers, helium-oxygen mixture is used in preference to nitrogen-oxygen mixture. It is much less soluble in blood than nitrogen. This prevents bends, i.e. the pain caused by formation of nitrogen bubbles in blood veins, when a diver comes to surface. (ii) Statement (2) is wrong. Hemoglobin has higher affinity for carbon monoxide than for oxygen. (iii) Statement (3) is wrong. Nitrogen gas is filled in the chips packets to make them fresh for a long time.

Moisture-retention and self-ploughing are the characteristic features of which type of soil?

  1. Peaty soil

  2. Red soil

  3. Regur soil

  4. Laterite soil


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Black soil is also known as regur soil. This soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil. It is believed that climatic conditions along with the parent rock material are the important factors for the formation of black soil. 

Which of the following islands does the Ten Degree Channel separate?

  1. North Andaman and Middle Andaman

  2. South Andaman and Little Andaman

  3. South Andaman and Car Nicobar

  4. Little Nicobar and Great Nicobar


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Located in the Andaman Sea, the Ten Degree Channel separates South Andaman from the Car Nicobar.

Directions: The following item consists of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labeled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answer using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape. Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.

  1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is true, but R is false.

  4. A is false, but R is true.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A is true. This is a phenomenon of total internal reflection of light, dependent on the 'critical angle' of the incidence of light in a material medium at its bounding surface with air. R is false as refractive index of diamond is really high.

The Bio-Resource Complex Initiative was undertaken by the Department of Biotechnology in order to

  1. create and recognize institutes promoting R&D in biotechnology

  2. utilize scientific manpower in the best manner to develop transgenic plant and animal species

  3. promote genetic engineering as a field of study in urban institutes

  4. utilize rural bio-resources in a more meaningful and sustainable manner


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Department of Biotechnology has taken bold initiatives on the establishment of rural bio-resource complexes in the country with an aim to utilize rural bio-resources in a more meaningful and sustainable manner and to create large number of avenues for the rural community. The concept was supported with an end to end approach and integrated networking, sharing resources, funding and benefits from state resources with technological innovations and S&T and BT inputs.

Match the following:

 
List - 1 List - II
1. Central Research Institute (i) New Delhi
2. Central Drug Research Institute (ii) Kasauli
3. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (iii) Lucknow
  1. 1 - (ii), 2 - (iii) and 3 - (i)

  2. 1 - (i), 2 - (iii) and 3 - (ii)

  3. 1 - (iii), 2 - (ii) and 3 - (i)

  4. 1 - (ii), 2 - (i) and 3 - (iii)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:
  1. Central Research Institute - (ii) Kasauli
    1. Central Drug Research Institute - (iii) Lucknow
    2. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research - (i) New Delhi

In which of the following states are the Garhjat Hills located?

  1. Odisha

  2. Chattisgarh

  3. Andhra Pradesh

  4. Madhya Pradesh


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Garhjat Hills are also known as Odisha Highlands. The region is bordered by Chota Nagpur Plateau in the North, Mahanadi Basin in the West, Eastern Ghats in the South and Utkal Plains in the East. 

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