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Legal and Regulatory Aspects of Bank (JAIIB)- 5

Attempted 0/120 Correct 0 Score 0

Which of the following partners is liable in relation to the firm?

  1. Partner by holding out

  2. Secret partner

  3. Sub-partner

  4. Partner by estoppel


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A partner may associate anybody else in his share in the firm. If he gives a part of his share to the stranger, then the sub-partner is a non-entity for the partnership.

The partnership deed must be properly drafted and stamped according to the provision of

  1. Indian Partnership Act

  2. Indian Stamp Act

  3. Indian Contract Act

  4. Indian Companies Act


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Partnership deed must be properly drafted and stamped according to the provision of Indian Stamp Act.

Rath of Cuttack orders Dinesh of Delhi to deliver 1,000 bags of goods (i: e. cement) to him at Delhi. While the goods are lying at New Delhi Railway Station, the station master informs rath of Cuttack that goods are held at rath's risk. But Rath has become insolvent. In this case

  1. Dinesh has the right of stoppage in transit

  2. Dinesh has lost his right of stoppage in transit

  3. Station master of New Delhi station has lost the right of stoppage in transit.

  4. None


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct Answer: Dinesh has lost his right of stoppage in transit

Co-operative banks operating in different states are registered under

  1. Co-operative Societies Act

  2. Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act

  3. RBI Act

  4. Banking Regulation Act


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Co-operative banks serve an important role in the Indian economy, especially in rural areas. In urban areas, they mainly serve small industry and self-employed workers. They are registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912

In which of the following forms of businesses may banking companies emerge?

  1. Acting as an agent for any government or local authority or any other person

  2. Undertaking and executing trusts

  3. Contracting for public and private loans.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under part 2 of Banking Regulations Act, banks may carry out businesses lending or advancing money act as an agent contracting for private or public loans. Banks can also undertake the administration of estates acquisition, maintenance, construction of any building convenient for the purposes of company.

Banking companies are not permitted to give dividend until all _____________ are written off.

  1. bad debts

  2. expenses

  3. capitalised expenses

  4. amortisation of dividends


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

No banking company shall pay any dividend on its shares until all its capi­talised expenses (including preliminary expenses, organisational expenses, share-selling commission, brokerage, amounts of losses incurred and any other item of expenditure not represented by tangible assets) have been completely written off.

Which of the following is/are true with regard to the functions of central bank?

(i) Custodian of cash reserves of commercial banks (ii) Custody and management of foreign exchange reserves (iii) Clearing house for transfer and settlement. (iv) Lender of the last resorts.

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (ii) and (iii)

  3. (iii) and (iv)

  4. All of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Functions of a central bank:

Regulator of Currency

Banker, fiscal agent and adviser to the government

Custodian of cash reserves of commercial banks

Custody and management of foreign exchange reserves

Lender of the last resort

Clearing house for transfer and settlement

Controller of credit

Which of the following statements are true with regard to statutory corporation?

(i) Generally financed by the central or state government (ii) Can not recruit and appoint their employee with their service condition (iii) Have a separate legal entity (iv) A lot of government interference in matters of the corporation

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (i) and (iii)

  3. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Some of the features are:

  1. Generally financed by the central or state government
  2. Can borrow funds from the public and government organisation through statutory sources
  3. Have separate legal entity
  4. Have to frame their own policies and procedures within the scope of state legislature
  5. Providing better services to public and make adequate profit.
  6. Autonomous in their functioning thus they enjoy operation flexibility.
  7. Can recruit & appoint their employee with their service condition, since they are corporate body.
  8. Have to follow the special statute strictly.
  9. Less government interference in matters of the corporation
  10. Limited liability of the members of the corporation

Thus, only (i) and (iii) are true. 

A Chairman who is appointed on a whole-time basis as a Managing Director of a banking company should not have ____________ in any other company.

  1. beneficial interest

  2. any interest

  3. substantial interest

  4. majority interest


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A person shall be disqualified for being Chairman who is appointed on a whole-time basis as a Managing Director, if he––

(a) is a director of any company other, than a company referred to in the proviso to sub-section 

(b) is a partner of any firm which carries on any trade, business or industry

(c) has substantial interest in any other company or firm

(d) is a director, manager, managing agent, partner or proprietor of any trading, commercial or industrial concern

(e) is engaged in any other business or vocation.

Which of the following is/are not important regulations relating to acceptance of deposits by NBFCs?

(i) The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and maximum period of 60 months. (ii) NBFCs should have minimum investment grade credit rating. (iii) The repayment of deposits by NBFCs is guaranteed by RBI. (iv) NBFCs can offer gifts/incentives or any other additional benefit to the depositors.

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  3. (iii) and (iv)

  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Some of the important regulations relating to acceptance of deposits by NBFCs are 

The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and maximum period of 60 months. They cannot accept deposits repayable on demand. NBFCs cannot offer interest rates higher than the ceiling rate prescribed by RBI from time to time. The present ceiling is 12.5 per cent per annum.  NBFCs cannot offer gifts/incentives or any other additional benefit to the depositors. NBFCs should have minimum investment grade credit rating. The deposits with NBFCs are not insured. The repayment of deposits by NBFCs is not guaranteed by RBI. Certain mandatory disclosures are to be made about the company in the application form issued by the company soliciting deposits. Thus, (iii) and (iv) are not true. 

Reserve Bank may issue directions to baking companies under Section 21 of Banking Regulation Act on

  1. audit

  2. advances

  3. capital structure

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Section 21 of Banking Regulation Act, power of Reserve Bank to control advances by banking companies where the Reserve Bank is satisfied that it is necessary or expedient in the public interest or in the interests of depositors or banking policy so to do, it may determine the policy in relation to advances to be followed by banking companies generally or by any banking companies or the banking company concerned, as the case may be, shall be bound to follow the policy as so determined.

The amount transferable to the reserve fund by the banks incorporated in India is _________ of the profit for each year.

  1. 25%

  2. 20%

  3. 10%

  4. There are no specifications.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The mandate of Section 17 states that every banking company will have to transfer to a reserve fund every year, a sum equivalent to "not less than twenty per cent of such profit". In other words, at least 20% of the profit as shown in the Profit and Loss Account before declaration of any dividend has to be transferred to the reserve fund.

The term ‘loans and advances’ will not include loans or advances against

  1. stocks and shares

  2. life insurance policies

  3. government securities

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The term ‘loans and advances’ will not include loans or advances against

Government securities

Life insurance policies

Fixed or other deposits

Stocks and shares

Temporary overdrafts for small amounts, i.e. upto Rs. 25,000.

Casual purchase of cheques up to Rs. 5000.

Housing loans, car advances, etc. granted to an employee of the bank under any scheme applicable generally to employees.

Which of the following statements is/are false?

(i) The maximum period of office that may be held continuously by an ordinary director in a banking company is eight years. (ii) The banking company or the person affected by the RBI order may appeal to the central government within 90 days. (iii) At least 71% of the directors should have the qualification prescribed under section 10A (2) of Banking Regulation Act. (iv) A director of a banking company should not have substantial interest in any other company.

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (ii) and (iii)

  3. (iii) and (iv)

  4. (ii) and (iv)


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Correct statements are The banking company or the person affected by the RBI order may appeal to the central government within 30 days. At least 51% of the directors should have the qualification prescribed under section 10A(2) of Banking Regulation Act. The maximum period of office that may be held continuously by an ordinary director in a banking company is eight years. A director of a banking company should not have substantial interest in any other company.  

Reserve Bank is empowered to conduct ____________ of a banking company under Section 35(1) of the Banking Regulations Act.

  1. inspection

  2. special audit

  3. audit

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 35 in BANKING REGULATION ACT,1949  Inspection Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in section 235 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), the Reserve Bank at any time may, and on being directed so to do by the Central Government shall, cause an inspection to be made by one or more of its officers of any banking company and its books and accounts; and the Reserve Bank shall supply to the banking company a copy of its report on such inspection. 

______________ may apply to the High Court for winding up of a banking company under Section 38 of the Banking Regulations Act.

  1. Registrar of Companies

  2. Reserve Bank

  3. Central Government

  4. Finance Ministry


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Reserve Bank shall make an application under Section 38 of the Banking Regulations Act for winding up of a company.  

Which is/are not true with regard to Smart City Brake Support (SCB) exemptions from maintaining Cash Reserve Ratio?

(i) Demand and Time Liabilities in respect of their Offshore Banking Units (ii) Liabilities to the banking system in India as computed (iii) Credit balances in ACU (USD) Accounts (iv) SCBs are required to include inter-bank term deposits/term borrowing liabilities of original maturities of 15 days and above

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (iii) only

  3. (iv) only

  4. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

SCBs are exempted from maintaining CRR on the following liabilities:

(i) Liabilities to the banking system in India as computed under Clause (d) of the explanation to Section 42(1) of the RBI Act, 1934;

(ii) Credit balances in ACU (USD) accounts;

(iii) Demand and Time Liabilities in respect of their Offshore Banking Units (OBU);and

(iv) SCBs are not required to include inter-bank term deposits/term borrowing liabilities of original maturities of 15 days and above and up to one year in "Liabilities to the Banking System". Similarly, banks should exclude their inter-bank assets of term deposits and term lending of original maturity of 15 days and above and up to one year in "Assets with the Banking System" (item III of Form A return) for the purpose of maintenance of CRR. The interest accrued on these deposits is also exempted from reserve requirements.

The State Bank of India has power to acquire ______________ under the State Bank of India Act.

  1. movable property

  2. immovable property

  3. movable or immovable property

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under The State Bank of India Act, 1955 The State Bank shall have power to acquire and hold property, whether movable or immovable, for the purposes for which it is constituted and to dispose off the same.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) A parent AIFI presenting CFS shall consolidate all subsidiaries, domestic as well as foreign. (ii) The AIFIs shall not use the same format for CPRs purposes as their solo balance sheet. (iii) In addition to solo level financial statements, the AIFIs shall also prepare and disclose consolidated financial statements. (iv) The AIFIs need not to follow the guidance on specific issues with respect to certain accounting standards.

  1. (i)

  2. (ii)

  3. (i) and (iii)

  4. (ii) and (iv)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct statements are

(i) A parent AIFI presenting CFS shall consolidate all subsidiaries, domestic as well as foreign

(ii) The AIFIs shall use the same format for CPRs purposes as their solo balance sheet prescribed under the respective Acts with appropriate modifications/notes.

(iii) In addition to solo level financial statements, the AIFIs shall also prepare and disclose consolidated financial statements.

(iv) The AIFIs shall follow the guidance on specific issues with respect to certain accounting standards.

Thus, only (i) and (iii) are correct.

A co-operative bank is

  1. created by persons belonging to the same local

  2. created by professional community

  3. created by people sharing a common interest

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A co-operative bank is a financial entity which belongs to its members who are, at the same time, the owners and the customers of their bank. Co-operative banks are often created by persons belonging to the same local or professional community or sharing a common interest. Co-operative banks generally provide their members with a wide range of banking and financial services. (loans, deposits, banking accounts...)

Co-operative banks have to prepare their balance sheet and profit and loss account in the forms set out in the Third Schedule to

  1. Banking Regulation Act

  2. Reserve Bank of India Act

  3. State Co-operative Societies Act

  4. Central Cooperative Societies Act


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 29 of Banking Regulation Act deals with Accounts and balance-sheet.  At the expiration of each calendar year, every banking company incorporated in India, in respect of all business transacted by it, and every banking company incorporated outside India, in respect of all business transacted through its branches in India, shall prepare with reference to that year or period, as the case may be, a balance-sheet and profit and loss account as on the last working day of that year or the period, as the case may be, in the Forms set out in the Third Schedule.

The law relating to the payment of cheques and protection to a banker is contained in

  1. Indian Contract Act

  2. Reserve Bank of India Act

  3. Negotiable Instruments Act

  4. Banking Regulation Act


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The law relating to cheques and protection to bankers is contained in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

A customer is bound to inform the ____________ about lost cheque leaves.

  1. payee

  2. endorse

  3. collecting bank

  4. drawee Bank


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In respect of cheques lost in transit or in the clearing process or at the paying branch, the collecting branch should immediately bring the same to the notice of the account holder, so that the account holder can inform the drawer to record stop payment and can also take care that other cheques issued by him are not dishonoured due to non-credit of the amount of the lost cheques. If the cheque has been lost by the individual, he/she can inform the drawee bank about the same.

Section 131A of the Negotiable Instruments Act extends the protection granted to a banker while

  1. receiving payment of a cheque and drafts

  2. making payment of cheque and drafts

  3. endorsing payment of cheque and drafts

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 131 in The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 Non-liability of banker receiving payment of cheque.— A banker who has in good faith and without negligence received payment for a customer of a cheque crossed generally or specially to himself shall not, in case the title to the cheque proves defective, incur any liability to the true owner of the cheque by reason only of having received such payment.

In a joint account, if one of the signatures is forged,

  1. the banker can make payment due to correct signatures of the one

  2. the banker cannot make the payment

  3. there will be an order from court

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

In a joint account, if one of the signatures is forged, then there is no mandate and banker cannot make payment.

The duties of collecting bank to claim protection has been laid down under the

  1. Indian Contract Act

  2. Banking Regulation Act

  3. Negotiable Instruments Act

  4. Banking Companies rules


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The duties of collecting bank to claim protection has been laid down under section 131 of Negotiable Instruments Act.

Payment to be made in due course

  1. not always be made to holder, but can be made to his agent or servant

  2. always has to be made to holder, but can be made to his agent or servant

  3. made to customer’s agent or servant

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 10 of the Negotiable Instrument Act defines payment in due course to mean the payment in accordance with the apparent tenor of the instrument in good faith and without negligence to any person in possession thereof under circumstances which do not afford a reasonable ground for believing that he is not entitled to receive payment of the amount therein mentioned. 

Which of the following statement are true?

(i) Central Government can acquire the undertaking of a banking company under Section 36 AE of the Banking Regulation Act in the interest of banking policy without any report from the Reserve Bank on the affairs of the banking company. (ii) Central Government may make the scheme for carrying out the purposes in relation to the acquired bank after consultation of RBI under section 36-AF. (iii) On the application of Reserve Bank, the High Court may stay the commencement or continuance of proceedings against any banking company for any period. (iv) The Reserve Bank or State Bank or another person as specified by the Reserve Bank in its application before the High Court may be appointed as liquidator of a baking company.

  1. (i) and (ii)

  2. (iii) and (iv)

  3. (ii) and (iv)

  4. (i) and (iii)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: (ii) and (iv)  Section 36 AE: Power of Central Government to acquire undertakings of banking companies in certain cases— (1) If, upon receipt of a report from the Reserve Bank, the Central Government is satisfied that a banking company (a) has, on more than one occasion, failed to comply with the directions given to it in writing under Section 21 or Section 35A, in so far as such directions relate to banking policy, or (b) is being managed in a manner detrimental to the interests of its depositors, and that (i) in the interests of the depositors of such banking company, or (ii) in the interest of banking policy, or (iii) for the better provision of credit generally or of credit to any particular section of the community or in any particular area.  Section 36 AF: The Central Government may, after consultation with the Reserve Bank, make a scheme for carrying out the purposes of this part in relation to any acquired bank.  Section 40: Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in 2 [Sec.466 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), the 3 [High Court] shall not make any order staying the proceedings in relation to the winding up of banking company, unless the T [High Court] is satisfied that an arrangement has been made whereby the company can pay its depositors in full as their claims accrue. Section 38A: There shall be attached to every High Court, a Court liquidator to be appointed by the Central Government for the purpose of conducting all proceedings for the winding up of banking companies and performing such other duties in reference thereto as the High Court may impose.

Individual borrowers are governed by

  1. Negotiable Instrument Act

  2. Limited Liability Partnership Act

  3. Indian Contract Act

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The laws applicable to different kind of borrowers are different. Individuals are governed by the Indian Contract Act and partnership firms under partnership Act.

In the absence of proper reference, the banker can be held liable on the grounds of

  1. negligence

  2. connivance

  3. crime

  4. arrogance


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In the absence of proper reference the banker, can be held liable on the grounds of negligence. Following are the duties of the bank, which when bank fails to carry out, can make it liable due to negligence

  • To ensure crossing and special crossing
  • To take into account the state of customer's account
  • To open the account with proper references and documentary proof etc. 

A Public Limited Company shares are:

  1. Not transferable

  2. Transferable

  3. The Act is silent

  4. All the above are correct


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

As stipulated under Section 58(2) of the CA13, the shares of a public company are freely transferrable.

Private trusts are governed by

  1. Companies Act

  2. Partner ship Act

  3. Indian Trusts Act

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Private trusts are governed by the Indian Trusts Act, 1882. This Act is applicable to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Cash Credit facility is a

  1. fund-based facility

  2. non-fund based facility

  3. both fund and non-fund based

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Fund-based working capital products include cash credit, packing credit and short termed loans etc.

Which of the following is/are false?

(i) The Central Board in discharging its functions shall act on business principles, regard being had to public interest. (ii) The Central government is authorised to give any directions to the State Bank in matters of policy involving public interest. (iii) The provisions of Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of the India Act relating to cash reserve applicable to commercial banks. (iv) Every person who immediately before the appointed day is registered as a holder of shares in the Imperial Bank shall be entitled to compensation.

  1. (i) (ii) and (iii)

  2. (ii) (iii) and (iv)

  3. (iii) and (iv)

  4. None of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) The Central Board in discharging its functions shall act on business principles, regard being had to public interest.

(ii) Central Board to be guided by directions of Central Government  In the discharge of its functions including those relating to a subsidiary bank, the State Bank shall be guided by such directions in matters of policy involving public interest as the Central Government may, in consultation with the Governor of the Reserve Bank and the chairman of the State Bank, give to it.

(iii) Every commercial bank has to keep certain minimum cash reserves with Reserve Bank of India. Consequent upon amendment to sub-Section 42(1), the Reserve Bank, having regard to the needs of securing the monetary stability in the country, RBI can prescribe Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) for scheduled banks without any floor rate or ceiling rate.

(iv) Compensation to be given to shareholders of Imperial Bank.  Every person who immediately before the appointed day is registered as a holder of shares in the Imperial Bank shall be entitled to compensation in accordance with the provisions contained in the First Schedule. Thus, all the statements are true.

In a Hindu undivided family, the business of the family is managed by

  1. Karta

  2. Proprietor

  3. Partner

  4. Director


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Karta is the manager of HUF (Hindu undivided family) and have wide powers by way of controlling the affairs of the HUF. The Karta enjoys his position in the HUF by operation of law without any agreement and consent of other members.

For delayed credit in customer's bank account, bank is not liable, if the delay is due to

  1. war

  2. damage of the bank

  3. acts of God

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The bank shall not be liable to compensate customers for delayed credit, if some unforeseen event (including but not limited to civil commotion, sabotage, accident, fires, natural disasters or other “Acts of God”, war, resulting in damage to the bank’s facilities or of its correspondent bank(s), etc.) beyond the control of the bank prevents it from performing its obligations within the specified service delivery parameters.

A person promising to save another from loss is called

  1. indemnified

  2. indemnifier

  3. collecting banker

  4. paying banker


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

An indemnifier is someone or something that protects another against or compensates for the loss or damage.

The limitation for recovery of the outstanding amount in the cash credit account is ______________ years from the last deposit made by the borrower.

  1. one

  2. four

  3. two

  4. five


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Limitation for suit or application for recovery of debts: The limitation for recovery of the outstanding amount in the cash credit account is three years from the last deposit made by the borrower in the account provided the pay in slip is available with the bank. The position is the same so far as overdraft account is concerned. In term loan account, the loan is payable in installments.

There are ___________ parties to a contract of indemnity.

  1. one

  2. two

  3. three

  4. four


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

There are two parties to the contract of indemnity, viz. indemnifier (promisor) and the Indemnified (promise).

Bills co-acceptance facility is a

  1. fund-based facility

  2. nbon-fund based facility

  3. Both fund and non-fund based

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The credit facilities given by the banks where actual bank funds are not involved are termed as 'non‑fund based facilities'. These facilities are divided in three broad categories as under

Letters of credit

Guarantees

Co‑acceptance of bills/deferred payment guarantees. 

Indemnifier's liability in a contract of indemnity is

  1. primary

  2. secondary

  3. collateral

  4. discretionary


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The liability of the indemnifier in the contract of indemnity is primary. If we talk about guarantee, the liability of the surety is secondary because the primary liability is of the debtor.

Which of the following can refer to a type of secured line of credit with a lender?

  1. Overdraft

  2. Cash credit

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Both "overdraft" and "cash credit" can refer to a type of secured line of credit with a lender. These terms can also refer to financial institutions that allow you to withdraw more funds than you actually have in your demand deposit accounts, although the specific functionalities of these allowances can vary. These provisions are sometimes referred to as overdraft protection, while others might be called cash credits. Be aware of the policies at your own bank or credit union, and know what costs are associated with overdrawing on your account.

The letter of credit is opened on the request of

  1. issuing bank

  2. applicant

  3. beneficiary

  4. confirming bank


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Bank issues a credit on the request of an applicant.

There are ______________ parties to a guarantee.

  1. one

  2. two

  3. three

  4. Depends upon the guarantee


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Guarantee contract includes three parties namely creditor, principal debtor and surety.

In case of invocation of the guarantee, the authorised dealer bank should send a detailed report to

  1. Chief General Manager-in-Charge

  2. Foreign Exchange Department

  3. External Payments Division

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In case of invocation of the guarantee, the authorised dealer bank should send a detailed report to the Chief General Manager-in-Charge, Foreign Exchange Department, External Payments Division (EPD), Reserve Bank of India, Central Office, Mumbai (400 001), explaining the circumstances leading to the invocation of the guarantee.

The bank who opens letter of credit is called

  1. issuing bank

  2. advising bank or the confirming bank

  3. negotiation bank or the nominated bank

  4. reimbursement bank


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Issuing bank is the bank who opens letter of credit. Letter of credit is created by issuing bank who takes responsibility to pay amount on receipt of documents from supplier of goods. (beneficiary under LC).

The advising bank’s responsibility is to

  1. inform the issuing bank as to whom to issue the letter of credit

  2. advise the buyer the dispatch of documents by the seller

  3. inform the beneficiary/seller about the letter of credit

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Advising bank is another party involved under Letter of Credit. Advising bank, as a part of letter of credit, takes responsibility to communicate with necessary parties under letter of credit and other required authorities. The advising bank is the party who sends documents under Letter of Credit to opening bank.

Guarantee is issued in the favour of

  1. issuer

  2. banker

  3. indemnifier

  4. beneficiary


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Guarantee is issued in favour of the beneficiary, who requires security against the risk of the principal’s non-performance or default under the primary contractual obligation.

An instruction to the bank from an account holder to pay a sum of money to a creditor on completion of certain conditions is known as

  1. Guarantee Securing Credit Line

  2. Performance Guarantee

  3. Advance Payment Guarantee

  4. Conditional Payment Undertaking


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Conditional Payment Undertaking – This is an instruction to the bank from an account holder to pay a sum of money to a creditor on completion of certain conditions. This bond is a post contract instrument that is used to pay off agents and contractor on completion of a project.

The confirming bank

  1. guarantees to undertake the responsibility of payment

  2. conforms the negotiation of the bills

  3. advises bank and conforms the Letter of Credit

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Confirming bank is one of the other parties involved in Letter of Credit. Confirming bank confirms and guarantees to undertake the responsibility of payment or negotiation acceptance under the credit.

Negotiating bank is the bank which

  1. negotiates the preliminary contract of sale between the buyer and the seller

  2. negotiates documents delivered to bank and verifies the documents

  3. guarantees the payment by the issuing bank

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Negotiating bank is one of the main parties involved under Letter of Credit. Negotiating Bbnk, who negotiates documents delivered to bank by beneficiary of Letter of Credit. Negotiating bank is the bank who verifies documents and confirms the terms and conditions under Letter of Credit on behalf of beneficiary to avoid discrepancies

Reimbursing bank is the bank that

  1. reimburses the seller

  2. reimburses the negotiating/paying or confirming bank

  3. reimburses the buyer on the goods being found defective

  4. reimburses its branch


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Reimbursing bank is one of the parties involved in an Letter of Credit. Reimbursing bank is the party who authorised to honor the the reimbursement claim of negotiation/ payment/ acceptance.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) There are three parties to a contract of indemnity, the indemnifier, the indemnity holder and the person on whose behalf the indemnity is given. (ii) Indemnifier’s liability occurs only if the indemnity holder suffers loss. (iii) Contract of Indemnity can not have all the essentials of a valid contract. (iv) Indemnity can be treated as a sub-species of compensation

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii)

  2. (ii) only

  3. (ii) and (iii)

  4. (ii) and (iv)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) is false. There are two parties to a contract of indemnity, Indemnifier and Indemnity holder. (ii) is true. Loss to the indemnity holder is essential, otherwise, the indemnifier cannot be held liable. (iii) is not true. Contract of Indemnity should have all the essentials of a valid contract like free consent, legality of object, etc. Consideration in this case can be anything done, or any promise made which serves as motivation behind the contract. (iv) is true. Indemnity can be treated as a sub-species of compensation and a Contract of Indemnity is a species of contracts

___________represents the first beneficiary in their absence, wherein the credits belonging to original beneficiary is transferable as per terms.

  1. Advising bank

  2. Second beneficiary

  3. Primary beneficiary

  4. Reimbursing bank


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Second beneficiary is one of the other parties involved in Letter of Credit. Second beneficiary who represents the first beneficiary or original beneficiary in their absence, wherein the credits belonging to original beneficiary is transferable as per terms.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A third party, mostly banks and financial institutions, gurantees the payments of the installments.

  2. This guarantee ensures timely payment of the instalments to the seller/exporter, failing which, the guarantee can be invoked and payment received.

  3. To understand better the deferred payment guarantee, it is necessary to understand how a payment is made in a deferred payment contract and how the same is guaranteed by a bank.

  4. All of the above are correct.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Correct Answer: All of the above are correct.  All given options are correct as per the Banking Regulations Act.

The maker of the bill is called

  1. endorse

  2. drawee

  3. drawer

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The maker of a bill of exchange or cheque is called the “drawer;” the person thereby directed to pay is called the “drawee.”

Bill of exchange means an

  1. unconditional direction to the drawer to pay the money

  2. unconditional promise to the drawer to pay the money

  3. unconditional obligation to the drawer to pay the money

  4. unconditional undertaking to the drawer to pay the money


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Bill of exchange is a written order to a person requiring them to make a specified payment to the signatory or to a named payee; a promissory note.

Bill purchase facility is granted in the case of

  1. demand bills

  2. usance bills

  3. tenor Bills

  4. term bills


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Bill purchase facility is granted in the case of demand bills. Bill discount is granted in the case of usance bills.

Which of the following statement is/are false?

(a) Banks (AD-1) are authorised to issue BGs on behalf of Indian agents of foreign airline companies. (b) Banks cannot issue unconditional guarantees in favour of overseas employers/importers on behalf of Indian exporters. (c) It will be important for the banks to carry out due diligence and verify the track record of such exporters to assess their ability to execute export orders. (d) Banks can issue bank guarantee/Letter of Undertaking (LoU)/ Letter of Comfort (LoC) in favour of the overseas supplier, bank and financial institution up to USD 30 Mn. per import transaction .

  1. (a), (b) and (c)

  2. (b) and (c)

  3. (b) and (d)

  4. All the given statements are false.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Correct Answer: b and d As per Banking regulations act, banks can issue BGs/Letter of Undertaking (LoU)/ Letter of Comfort (LoC) in favour of the overseas supplier, bank and financial institution up to USD 20 mn. per import transaction. Banks can issue unconditional guarantees in favour of overseas employers/importers on behalf of indian exporters.

Ownership of goods can be transferred by endorsement and delivery of

  1. right to money

  2. obligation to pay

  3. document of title to goods

  4. document of title to immovable property


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bill of lading that is written (drawn) 'To Order' of the consignee and is, therefore, a negotiable instrument of title. Ownership of goods covered under it can be transferred by one party to another by signature (endorsement) and delivery of the Bill of Landing. Generally, goods which have not been paid-for in advance (goods sent under an open-account or a letter-of-credit) are shipped under 'To Order' Bill of Landing. Bill of lading comes under the "document of title to goods”.

Insurance contracts are contracts of

  1. absolute good conduct

  2. absolute good faith

  3. absolute good security

  4. absolute bad faith


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The insurance contract must be signed by both parties (i.e insurer and insured) in an absolute good faith or belief or trust.

Bills of lading, dock warrants, warehouse-keeper’s certificate, etc. are some examples of

  1. documents of title to goods

  2. documents of title to negotiable instruments

  3. documents of title to immovable property

  4. All of the above are correct


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

"Document of title to goods” includes a bill of lading, dock-warrant, warehouse keeper’s certificate, wharfingers’ certificate, railway receipt, warrant or order for the delivery of goods and any other document used in the ordinary course of business as proof of the possession or control of goods, or authorising or purporting to authorise, either by endorsement or by delivery, the possessor of the document to transfer or receive goods thereby represented.

For a loan against fixed deposit receipt

  1. stamp duty is very high

  2. stamp duty depends on the loan amount

  3. depositor/borrower affixes revenue stamp on the reverse of the deposit receipt

  4. there is no stamp involved


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The bank should obtain from the borrower the deposit receipt duly discharged by signing on the back of it across a revenue stamp and a memorandum of pledge authorising the bank to utilise the proceeds of the deposit on its maturity towards repayment of the loan.

Mortgage is _____________ in the immoveable property.

  1. transfer of title

  2. transfer of interest

  3. pledge

  4. hypothecation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Mortgage is defined in Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Section 58. It involves the transfer of interest in a specific immovable property for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt or for the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability. In other words, mortgage means transfer of some interest in property while the legal ownership continues with the mortgagor.

A mortgage where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money is known as

  1. simple mortgage

  2. usufructuary mortgage

  3. english mortgage

  4. anomalous mortgage


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Simple mortgage is where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money and agrees expressly or impliedly that in the event of his failing to pay according to his contract, the mortgagee shall have a right to cause the mortgaged property to be sold and the proceeds of sale to be applied, so far as may be necessary, in payment of the mortgage-money.

Mortgage, where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee is known as

  1. english mortgage

  2. usufructuary mortgage

  3. anomalous mortgage

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

English mortgage is where the mortgagor binds himself to repay the mortgage-money on a certain date and transfers the mortgaged property absolutely to the mortgagee, but subject to a proviso that he will re-transfer it to the mortgagor upon payment of the mortgage-money as agreed.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) The mortgage deed is the evidence of the interest transferred to the mortgage holder. (ii) There are three parties to a mortgage. (iii) A deed of trust involves two parties. (iv) Preference shares have the advantage of a higher priority claim to the assets of a corporation in case of insolvency

  1. (i)

  2. (i) and (ii)

  3. (ii) and (iii)

  4. (i) and (iv)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(i) The mortgage deed is the evidence of the interest transferred to the mortgage holder. Often simply referred to as the mortgage, the mortgage deed is the document transferred to the mortgage holder.

(ii) There are two parties to a mortgage: the mortgagor (the borrower) and the mortgagee (the lender)

(iii) A deed of trust involves three parties:      (a) the trustor (the borrower)      (b) the beneficiary (the lender)      (c) the trustee. 

(iv) Preference shares, also known as preferred shares, have the advantage of a higher priority claim to the assets of a corporation in case of insolvency and receive a fixed dividend distribution. Thus, (i) and (iv) are true.

Mortgage, where the mortgagor ostensibly sells the mortgaged property on condition that on default of payment of the mortgage-money on a certain date the sale shall become absolute is known as

  1. simple mortgage

  2. mortgage by conditional sale

  3. usufructuary mortgage

  4. anomalous mortgage


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Mortgage by conditional sale is where, the mortgagor ostensibly sells the mortgaged property on condition that on default of payment of the mortgage-money on a certain date the sale shall become absolute, or on condition that on such payment being made the sale shall become void, or on condition that on such payment being made the buyer shall transfer the property to the seller, the transaction is called mortgage by conditional sale and the mortgagee becomes a mortgagee by conditional sale.

Limitation period for filing a suit for sale of mortgaged properties is __________ years from the date the mortgage debt becomes due.

  1. 3

  2. 5

  3. 10

  4. 12


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The limitation period for filing a suit for sale of mortgaged property is twelve years from the date the mortgage debt becomes due. The limitation period for foreclosure is thirty years from the date of money secured by mortgage becomes due.  

Pledge means ___________ of goods for purpose of securing a payment of debt or performance of promise.

  1. setting off

  2. hypothecation

  3. safe deposit

  4. bailment


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Pledge is a special kind of bailment in which a person transfers the possession of his property to another for securing the loan taken from the other. It only differs from bailment in the matter of purpose. When the purpose of the bailment is to secure a loan or a promise, it is called a pledge. Section 172 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines pledge as the bailment of goods as a security for the payment of a debt or performance of a promise. The bailor in this case is called a Pawnor and the bailee is called Pawnee.

Hypothecation is an implied pledge in case where

  1. constructive possession of goods is given

  2. delivery of goods is given

  3. constructive possession of obligation is given

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

In hypothecation, the possession of the property is restrained by the owner and certain rights in that moveable property are transferred to the person in whose favour the property is hypothecated. In a pledge, the possession of goods also passes to the pledgee by way of security, though the possession may be constructive. The true distinction from hypothecation is that the constructive possession of the goods in the case of pledge is specifically secured by the terms of the contract and is continued unabated throughout.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Lien is the right to deliver possession

  2. Hypothecation is the right to possession

  3. To constitute a pledge, delivery of possession to the pledge is necessary

  4. Pledge and hypothecation are the same


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Lien is a right to keep possession of property belonging to another person until a debt owed by that person is discharged. To constitute a pledge, delivery of possession, actual or constructive, to the pledge is necessary. If the person entitled to the security is in possession of the movable property, it is a pledge, carrying with it a power of sale on default of payment on the due date or if no date is fixed after notice. No particular formality is required to be done regarding creating charge on pledged movable property. 

Which of the following persons can make a valid pledge?

  1. Owner of the goods

  2. A mercantile agent

  3. Co-owner in possession

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As a rule, pledge can be made only by the owner of the goods. But, there are certain exceptions to this general rule. Hence, the following persons can also make a valid pledge:

  1. Mercantile agent
  2. Pledge by persons in possession of goods under a voidable contract
  3. Pledge by a person having only a limited interest
  4. Pledge by a co-owner in possession
  5. Pledge by seller in possession of goods after sale
  6. Pledge by buyer in possession of goods before sale

Charge means which of the following?

(i) Interest (ii) Right which a lender obtains (iii) Right which a creditor obtains

  1. Only (i)

  2. Only (i) and (ii)

  3. Only (ii) and (iii)

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A charge means an interest or right, which a lender or creditor obtains in a property of a company by way of security that a company will pay back the debt. When a charge is created, it has to be registered with the Registrar of Companies.

Charges created by company shall be registered with which of the following?

  1. Registrar of Assurances

  2. Registrar of Firms

  3. Registrar of Companies

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A charge created by a company is required to be registered with the Registrar within thirty days of its creation in such form and on payment of such fees as may be prescribed.

Under Companies Act, a charge includes

  1. mortgage

  2. promissory note

  3. bill of exchange

  4. letter of credit


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 2(16) of the Companies Act, 2014 defines charges so as to mean an interest or lien created on the property or assets of a company or any of its undertakings or both as security and includes a mortgage.

Charge shall be registered within ____________ days from the date of creation of charge.

  1. 60

  2. 30

  3. 15

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A charge created by a company is required to be registered with the Registrar within thirty days of its creation in such form and on payment of such fees as may be prescribed.

After Mardia Chemical Case, the amendment made in the SARFAESI Act stipulated deposit of ________ amount before preferring the appeal to DRT (Appellate Tribunal).

  1. 50%

  2. 60%

  3. 70%

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Based on the observation of the Supreme Court in the Mardia Chemicals vs Union of India case, the Government of India issued notification amending the provisions of the SARFAESI Act. The amendment stipulates payment of 50% amount, instead of 75% as originally enacted.

Which of the following regulates Collective Investment Schemes (CIS)?

  1. SEBI

  2. RBI

  3. Regional officer

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

SEBI is the regulator of CIS. Information on such schemes and grievances against the promoters may be immediately forwarded to SEBI as well as to the EOW/Police Department of the State Government.

Provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002 applies

  1. to any moveable or immoveable security charged to the bank or financial institution

  2. to mortgage securities only

  3. where the security interests are created for repayment of financial assistance given by the bank or a financial institution.

  4. to the properties owned by the defaulter borrowers, but those that are not charged to the bank.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Banks utilise Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 as an effective tool for bad loans (NPA) recovery. It is possible where non-performing assets are backed by securities charged to the Bank by way of hypothecation or mortgage or assignment. Thus, option 3 is the correct answer. 

Can moveable securities in possession of the bank be sold by the bank without the intervention of the court?

  1. No, a court order is required to sell the security.

  2. Yes, bank can sell as provided in the Contract Act, 1872.

  3. Yes, as the SARFAESI Act, 2002 has made provisions to that effect.

  4. No, until the account is not declared as NPA by the bank.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

As per SARFAESI Act, 2002, upon loan default, banks can seize the securities (except agricultural land) without intervention of the court. The Act gives powers of “seize and desist” to banks. Banks can give a notice in writing to the defaulting borrower requiring it to discharge its liabilities within 60 days. If the borrower fails to comply with the notice, the Bank may take recourse to take possession of the security for the loan, sale or lease or assign the right over the security and manage the same or appoint any person to manage the same.

What did the Supreme Court declare as invalid in the Mardia case?

  1. Entire SARFAESI Act, 2002

  2. Creation of security interest

  3. Formation of Reconstruction Companies

  4. Condition to pay seventy-five per cent of the amounts as pre-condition while preferring appeal to the DRT


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As per the decision of the Court in Mardia Chemical Ltd. and Others vs. Union of India and Others [(2004) 4 SCC 311], the provision requiring pre-deposit of 75% of the demand made by the Bank or the financial institution in Section 17 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 has been held to be onerous and oppressive, rendering the remedy illusory and nugatory and constitutionally invalid.

Which of the following is/are the right(s) of the borrower as per SARFAESI Act, 2002?

  1. The borrowers can at any time before the sale is concluded, remit the dues and avoid loosing the security.

  2. In case any unhealthy/illegal act is done by the Authorised Officer, he will be liable for penal consequences.

  3. The borrowers will be entitled to get compensation for such acts.

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Rights of the borrower as per SARFAESI Act, 2002: 

  • The borrowers can at any time before the sale is concluded, remit the dues and avoid loosing the security.
  • In case any unhealthy/illegal act is done by the Authorised Officer, he will be liable for penal consequences.
  • The borrowers will be entitled to get compensation for such acts.
  • For redressing the grievances, the borrowers can firstly approach the DRT and thereafter, the DRAT in appeal. The limitation period is 45 days and 30 days, respectively.

SARFAESI Act was enacted for regulating securitisation and reconstruction of ________ and enforcement of security interest created in favour of secured ________

  1. financial assets, creditors

  2. non-financial assets, creditors

  3. financial assets, borrowers

  4. non-financial assets, borrowers


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 was enacted with the objective of regulating securitisation and reconstruction of financial assets and enforcement of security interest created in favour of secured creditors. 

When any bank or financial institution obtains a charge against property, with the _____, the transaction will have to be registered under the SARFAESI Act, 2002.

  1. Central Registry

  2. ROC

  3. Registrar of Assurances

  4. Reserve Bank of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Central Government has issued the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (Central Registry) Rules, 2011 and prescribed the forms to be used for the purpose of filing information for registration in respect of transactions of securitisation, asset reconstruction of financial assets and security interest over property. Thus, the transactions will have to be registered with the Central Registry.

If the borrower does not pay within ____________ days after notice by the secured creditor, the creditor can ___________ of the security.

  1. sixty, take possession

  2. seventy, take possession

  3. fifty, take possession

  4. twenty, take possession


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

SARFAESI Act, 2002 gives powers of “seize and desist” to banks. Banks can give a notice in writing to the defaulting borrower requiring it to discharge its liabilities within 60 days. If the borrower fails to comply with the notice, the Bank may take recourse to take possession of the security for the loan, sale or lease or assign the right over the security and manage the same or appoint any person to manage the same.

As per SARFAESI Act, 2002, security receipt is required when

  1. there is a transfer of receipt

  2. the RBI directs to do so

  3. the security receipt is not creating interest in a immovable property

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The registration of the security receipt is required when there is a transfer of receipt or the security receipt is creating, declaring, assigning, limiting, extinguishing any right title or interest in an immovable property.

Are existing or future receivables property?

  1. Yes

  2. No

  3. Yes, but if and when charged to the lender

  4. No, if hypothecated to the lender


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The expression “property” is defined in various laws in India, the latest being Section 2(1)(t) of the SARFAESI Act which defines property as: 

(i) immovable property (ii) movable property (iii) any debt or any right to receive payment of money whether secured or unsecured (iv) receivables, whether existing or future (v) intangible assets, being know-how, patent, copyright, trade mark, licence, franchise or any other business or commercial right of similar nature.

For each asset acquired or to be acquired by the securitisation company or the reconstruction company, there should be

  1. separate scheme

  2. combined scheme

  3. separate and combined scheme

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Scheme of acquisition has to be formulated for every acquisition detailing therein the description of financial assets under acquisition, the quantum of investment, rate of return assured etc. Further separate and distinct accounts have to be maintained in respect of each scheme of acquisition. Realisations made from the financial assets have to be held and applied towards the redemption of investments and payment of assured returns.

Which of the following is a function of a securitisation company?

  1. Acquisition of loan transaction from the lender

  2. Help the lender in recovery by sale of charge property

  3. Take legal steps against the defaulter borrower on behalf of the lender

  4. Acquisition of financial asset from the originator


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Section 5 provides for the acquisition of rights or interests in financial assets of any bank or financial institution by SCO/RCO, notwithstanding any thing contrary contained in any agreement or any other law for the time being in force, in either of the following manner: Issuing a debenture or bond or any other security in the nature of debenture, as consideration agreed upon by a SCO/RCO and bank/financial institution, incorporating therein the terms and conditions of issue. Entering into an agreement with bank/financial institution for the transfer of such financial assets on such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon.

When the securitisation company or reconstruction company issues security receipts, the holder thereof is entitled to a ____________ in the financial asset.

  1. divided interest

  2. undivided interest

  3. divided and undivided interest

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

"Securitisation" means acquisition of financial assets by any securitisation company or reconstruction company from any originator, by raising of funds by such securitisation company or reconstruction company from qualified institutional buyers by issue of security receipts representing undivided interest in such financial assets.

The authorised officer shall serve to the borrower a notice of _______ days for sale of the immovable secured assets.

  1. 30

  2. 20

  3. 10

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under sale of immovable secured assets, the authorised officer shall serve to the borrower a notice of 30 days for sale of the immovable secured assets.

After application of the SARFAESI Act, the existing companies

  1. are automatically deemed to be registered

  2. are required to stop functioning

  3. do not require registration

  4. have to get registered within six months from the commencement of the Act


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A securitisation company or reconstruction company, existing on the commencement of this Act, shall make an application for registration to the Reserve Bank before the expiry of six months from such commencement and notwithstanding anything contained in this sub-section may continue to carry on the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction until a certificate of registration is granted to it or, as the case may be, rejection of application for registration is communicated to it.

Which of the following is a reason for the cancellation of registration of the securitisation company and reconstruction company without giving a hearing opportunity?

  1. The company does not keep accounts as per the RBI norms

  2. The company ceases to carry on the business of securitisation or reconstruction

  3. The company fails to hold investment from the qualified investor

  4. Any of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The Reserve Bank may cancel a certificate of registration granted to a securitisation company or a reconstruction company, if such company

(a) ceases to carry on the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction (b) ceases to receive or hold any investment from a qualified institutional buyer (c) has failed to comply with any conditions subject to which the certificate of registration has been granted to it (d) at any time fails to fulfil any of the conditions referred to in clauses (a) to (g) of Sub-section (3) of Section 3.

Who has the power, by notice in writing, to recover any money from any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower?

  1. Deputy Manager

  2. Manager

  3. Board of Directors

  4. Board of Trustees


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Manager shall have power by notice in writing to recover any money from any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower, which is due or may become due to the borrower.

On sale of security asset, the sale proceeds are appropriated firstly towards

  1. the satisfaction of dues of secured creditor

  2. the payment of dues of labour

  3. payment of cost, charges and expenses for the preservation and protection of securities, insurance premiums etc

  4. payment of legal costs incurred by the creditor for taking possession and for effecting sale


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

When sale of secured asset is made, the appropriation of sale proceeds realised are required to be made. Firstly, towards costs, charges and expenses incidental towards preservation and protection of securities, insurance premiums etc. that are recoverable from the borrower. Secondly, towards the due of the secured creditors. Thirdly, if there is any surplus, it will be paid to the person entitled thereto in accordance with the right and interests.

Which of the following is not the change introduced by the SARFAESI Act in the law relating to creation and enforcement of security?

  1. Security interest is defined in generic term giving effect to substance over form to a limited extent

  2. Financial assets are not freely assignable

  3. Powers of enforcement of security interest have been given to the banks and financial institutions

  4. Take the matter before DRT for resolving issues raised in the reply


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The changes introduced by the SARFAESI Act in the law relating to creation and enforcement of security over property are as under:

Financial assets are made freely assignable notwithstanding anything contained in any law or any agreement (Section 5) Security interest is defined in generic term giving effect to substance over form to a limited extent Powers of enforcement of security interest have been given to the banks and financial institutions Definition of property is made wide to cover variety of property rights Since the existing law in India does not permit enforcement of mortgages of immovable properties, the same are also included in the definition of security interest with power of enforcement without the intervention of the Courts.

Is breach of RBI directives a punishable offence and to what extent?

  1. Yes, a fine up to Rs. 5 lakh and for continuation of the offence, a fine of up to Rs. 10,000 per day.

  2. Yes, by cancellation of licences of the company.

  3. No, these are the administrative directions.

  4. No, the Act has not provided for any punishment in specific.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under Section 12 of the SARFAESI Act, the Reserve Bank of India is statutorily empowered to issue directions to the securitisation or reconstruction company. If any such company fails to comply with any of the directions issued by the Reserve Bank of India, then such company is punishable with a fine not exceeding Rs. 5 lakh for the default. In case of further continuation of the offence, an additional fine up to Rs. 10,000 per day of the default can be imposed.

Provisions of the SARFAESI Act are applicable to which of the following?

  1. Pledged goods

  2. Only mortgaged properties

  3. Securities that are not otherwise charged to the creditors

  4. NPA loans with outstanding above Rs. 1 lakh


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The provisions of SARFAESI Act are applicable only for NPA loans with outstanding above Rs. 1 lakh. Non-performing assets should be backed by securities charged to the Bank by way of hypothecation or mortgage or assignment. Security interest by way of lien, pledge, hire purchase and lease (not liable for attachment under Section 60 of CPC) are not covered under this Act

The object of introducing the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 is

  1. for effective monitoring of the NPA accounts in the bank

  2. to regulate the disputes amongst the banks

  3. to enable resolution of complaints relating to banking services

  4. for executing the orders passed by the DRT


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In 2006, the Reserve Bank of India announced the revised Banking Ombudsman Scheme with enlarged scope that included customer complaints on certain new areas, such as credit card complaints, deficiencies in providing the promised services even by banks' sales agents, levying service charges without prior notice to the customer and non-adherence to the fair practices code as adopted by individual banks.

When do the rules framed by the Central Government get valid under the Act?

  1. After the appellate tribunal of DRT approves them

  2. When Supreme Court approves the same

  3. Immediately on framing of the rules by the Government and notifying the same

  4. When both the Houses of Parliament approve the rule so framed


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate. They also cease to operate in case resolutions disapproving the Ordinance are passed by both Houses.

Complaints relating to non-acceptance of small denomination notes by a bank can be made to a Banking Ombudsman because

  1. such small denomination notes and coins are to be deposited with the Reserve Bank

  2. they may be deposited with a bank having a currency chest facility

  3. the Banking Ombudsman can deal with the complaints under the scheme

  4. the complainant can seek no remedy at all through the Banking Ombudsman, but has to approach the consumer disputes redressal machinery


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In 2006, Reserve Bank of India announced the revised Banking Ombudsman Scheme with enlarged scope that included customer complaints on certain new areas, such as credit card complaints, deficiencies in providing the promised services even by banks' sales agents, levying service charges without prior notice to the customer and non-adherence to the fair practices code as adopted by individual banks. Bank customers can complain about non-payment or any inordinate delay in payments or collection of cheques towards bills or remittances by banks, as also non-acceptance of small denomination notes and coins or charging of commission for acceptance of small denomination notes and coins by banks.

Can complaints be made against promises made by sales agents but not fulfilled by the bank represented by them under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?

  1. No, complaint is not admissible as he is not the employee of the bank.

  2. The sales agent has no authority to make any promise and hence, the bank is not bound to fulfill them.

  3. The Banking Ombudsman can entertain the complaint under the scheme.

  4. Agency functions are outside the purview of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In 2006, Reserve Bank of India announced the revised Banking Ombudsman Scheme with enlarged scope that included customer complaints on certain new areas, such as credit card complaints, deficiencies in providing the promised services even by banks' sales agents, levying service charges without prior notice to the customer and non-adherence to the fair practices code as adopted by individual banks. The 2006 scheme provides a forum to bank customers to seek redressal of their most common complaints against banks, including those relating to credit cards, service charges, promises given by the sales agents of banks, but not kept by banks, as also, delays in delivery of bank services. 

Limitation period for filling of the review application against the award given by the Banking Ombudsman is

  1. 60 days

  2. 45 days

  3. 30 days

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

If one is aggrieved by the decision, one may, within 30 days of the date of receipt of the award, appeal against the award before the appellate authority. The appellate authority may, if he/she is satisfied that the applicant had sufficient cause for not making an application for appeal within time, also allow a further period not exceeding 30 days.

What is the maximum amount the Banking Ombudsman can award as compensation?

  1. Rs. 10 lakh

  2. Rs. 20 lakh

  3. Rs. 30 lakh

  4. No limit


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Annual Report of the Banking Ombudsman Scheme for the year 2011-12 released by RBI's Customer Service Department contains a clarification in this regard. It says, "Clause 12(5) and 12(6) establish pecuniary jurisdiction of the BO i.e. the ceiling upto which BO can award monetary compensation. Under Clause 12(5), BO has powers to pass an award directing payment of an amount, not more than the actual loss suffered by the complainant as a direct consequence of an act of omission or commission of the bank, or Rs. 10 Lakh, whichever is lower."

DRT Act is applicable only if the debt recoverable is __________ or above.

  1. Rs. 10 Lakh

  2. Rs. 15 Lakh

  3. Rs. 5 Lakh

  4. Rs. 20 Lakh


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) can hear claims of banks only if the amount claimed is Rs. 10 lakhs and above. 

Can a customer, from whose account someone has fraudulently withdrawn money, make a complaint before the Banking Ombudsman?

  1. No, as the offence committed, is of criminal nature, FIR has to be filed with the police.

  2. Yes, but if the police authorities receiving the FIR permit filing of the complaint with the Ombudsman.

  3. Yes, as this aspect comes under the powers of the Banking Ombudsman.

  4. No, as the loss caused to the customer is of a civil nature for recovery, civil suit should be filed.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Grounds of complaints pertaining to deficiency in any of the banking services such as:

Non-payment or delay in payment of cheques, drafts, bills etc. Non-issuance of drafts to customers Non-adherence to prescribed working hours by the branches Failure to honour guarantee or letter of credit Claims in regards to fraudulent withdrawals or fraudulent encashment of cheque or a bank draft Complaints for any of the accounts pertaining to delays, non-credit of proceeds to parties accounts Complaints for non-observance of RBI’s directives applicable to rate of interests on deposits or violation of directives on any other matter Complaints from exporters for delays in receipt of export proceeds, handling of export bills, collections of bills etc. 

Can complaints be filed through an advocate as the authorised representative of the complainant?

  1. Advocates are not allowed to act as authorised representative of the complainant.

  2. Advocates can file the complaint, provided they have been given the vakalatnama by the party.

  3. Advocates can appear for the parties as they can present the case well before the Banking Ombudsman.

  4. Advocates are allowed to appear only if the party does not stay within the jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The complaint can be filed by one's authorised representative (other than an advocate).

A bank has allowed a current account holder an ad hoc overdraft of Rs. 15 lakh. That amount is now due. Is this amount recoverable under the provisions of the DRT Act?

  1. No, as it is not a regular loan.

  2. No, as only secured loans can be recovered under the DRT Act.

  3. Yes, as it is a legally recoverable amount by the bank.

  4. Yes, if the tribunal grants special permission to lodge the case.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

It is a legally recoverable amount by the bank.

Can Reserve Bank and the Central Government forward a complaint to the Banking Ombudsman?

  1. The right to complaint is given to the complainant only.

  2. Neither the Reserve Bank nor the Central Government has the right to refer the matter to the Banking Ombudsman.

  3. Reserve Bank and the Central Government are empowered to send the complaint received by them to the Banking Ombudsman.

  4. Only an individual’s complaint can be sent by the Reserve Bank and the Central Government.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

The Banking Ombudsman Scheme has been formulated by the Reserve Bank of India to provide an expeditious grievance redressal mechanism to customers of banks. It provides for an institutional and legal framework for resolution of complaints relating to banking services and other matters as specified under the Scheme. The Scheme has been brought into force by way of direction issued by the Reserve Bank in terms of Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The Reserve Bank will also appoint its serving senior officials as the Banking Ombudsman and will also fully fund it for better effectiveness. The Banking Ombudsman shall also entertain complaints covered by this Scheme received by Central Government or Reserve Bank and forwarded to him for disposal.  

Can the order of Central Government in the appointment of the Presiding Officer of the tribunal be challenged in any Court?

  1. Yes, before the appellate tribunal

  2. No

  3. No, unless the High Court permits it

  4. Yes, under Article 226 of the Constitution and only before the High Court


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

No order of the appropriate Government or of the Central Government appointing any person as the Chairman or any other member of a Board or Court or as the Presiding Officer of a Labour Court shall be called in question in any manner and no act or proceeding before any Board or Court shall be called in question in any manner on the ground merely of the existence of any vacancy in, or defect in the constitution of, such Board or Court.

Which of the following is correct about amount to be deposited while appealing before the appellate tribunal?

  1. No amount is required to be deposited until the appellate tribunal decides.

  2. Court-fee on the appeal amount is required to be paid.

  3. 75 percent of the amount determined by the tribunal is required to be deposited at the time of filing of the appeal.

  4. After admission of the appeal, 75 percent of the amount determined by the tribunal is required to be deposited.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

When against the order passed by the tribunal, the appellants file an appeal before the appellate tribunal constituted under the Act. Under Section 21 of the Act, the judgment-debtor is required to deposit 75 percent of the amount, which is due to the respondent-bank for the appeal to be registered.

A voluntary winding up may take place by passing an ordinary resolution in the general meeting if

  1. the period fixed for the duration of the company by the articles has expired

  2. the duration of the company has not expired and will not expire for another two months

  3. some event, on the happening of which company is to be dissolved, has not happened

  4. no permission but concurrence of High Court is required


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

When a company is wound up by the members or the creditors without the intervention of the tribunal, it is called as voluntary winding up. It may take place by the passing of an ordinary resolution in the general meeting if 

  1. the period fixed for the duration of the company by the articles has expired 
  2. some event, on the happening of which the company is to be dissolved, has happened

In a civil suit, to which the bank is not a party, one of the parties has produced certified copy of books of account. One party to the suit wants to call the bank officer as witness to prove the contents of copy. Can it be done?

  1. Yes, as it is the right of the party to get reaffirmed in evidence.

  2. No, as the certified copy is a prima facie evidence that is admissible in evidence.

  3. No, unless the bank volunteers to do so.

  4. Yes, but if the court allows the application to call the witness.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

No, as the certified copy is a prima facie evidence that is admissible in evidence. Bank is not required to produce itself as the certified copy of evidence is presented and it is a prima facie evidence.

N purchased a draft from a bank favoring B. The draft is lost in transit and the first bank needs some formalities to be completed by N for a duplicate draft in lieu of the lost draft. Which of the following is correct if B decides to file a consumer case against the formalities as it is causing delay in payment to him?

  1. B cannot file a case as he is not a consumer of the bank and is not taking any service from the bank.

  2. B cannot file a case as he has not paid the demand draft commission.

  3. B can file a case as his payment is getting delayed due to the bank procedures.

  4. B can file a case as his money is lying in the bank and he is deemed as account holder of the bank.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Where, in the case of loss of demand draft, the necessary formalities as required by the rules of the bank are not complied with, the bank cannot stated to be deficient in service in not issuing a duplicate draft or canceling the draft and making cash payment to the purchaser (complainant). Also, in this case, B is not the consumer of the bank. Thus, he cannot indulge in given preceedings. Also, formalities are required to be done by N. 

Who is the Chairman of the Central Consumer Protection Council?

  1. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

  2. Judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

  3. Minister-in-charge of Law and Judiciary in the Central Government

  4. Minister-in-charge of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Consumer Protection Act empowers the Central Government to establish a Central Consumer Protection Council consisting of the Minister-in-charge of consumer affairs in the Central Government as its Chairman and such number of other official and non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed.

Which of the following conditions is necessary for doctrine of election based on the principle of equity?

  1. The transferor must not be the owner of the property which he transfers

  2. The transferor must transfer the property of the other owner to a third person

  3. The owner must have proprietary interest in the property, a creditor is not put to election as he has only a personal right to be paid by the debtor

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The doctrine of election is based on the principle of equity. The conditions necessary for application of this doctrine are as follows (1) The transferor must not be the owner of the property which he transfers (2) The transferor must transfer the property of the other owner to a third person (3) The transferor must at the same time grant some property in the same instrument, out of his own, to the owner of the property (4) The two transfers (transfer of the property of owner to the transferee and conferment of benefit on the owner of property) must be made in the same transaction (5) The question of election does not arise if the two transfers are made by virtue of two separate instruments (6) The owner must have proprietary interest in the property, a creditor is not put to election as he has only a personal right to be paid by the debtor  (7) The owner takes no benefit under a transaction directly, but diverts a benefit under it indirectly, is not put to election (8) Question of election does not arise when benefit is given to a person in a different capacity

Which of the following is/are exception(s) to 'no consideration, no contract'?

  1. Agreement on account of natural love

  2. Promise to pay time barred debt

  3. Contract of agency and guarantee

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Consideration (no consideration, no contract) exceptions are a. natural love and affection  b. voluntary compensation c. time-barred debt d. completed gift
e. contract of agency f. remission by the promisee

A contract in which one party wins and the other loses is called

  1. contingent contract

  2. wagering contract

  3. uncertain contract

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A contract in which one party wins and the other loses is called a wagering contract. A contingent event depends upon happening or non-happening of events.

Which of the following is not a feature of a company?

  1. Incorporated entity

  2. Separate legal identity

  3. Artificial personality

  4. Unlimited liability


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Unlike the partnership firm, a company does not have unlimited liability on its members. The liability of members is limited. 

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