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Judicial Services Mock - 3

Attempted 0/125 Correct 0 Score 0

What are the essentials of a valid contract?

  1. Free consent between all the parties of a contract

  2. Acceptance of offer

  3. There should be an offer

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

A valid contract must have: Offer and acceptance Lawful consideration Capacity of parties Free consent Lawful object 

What is/are the basic difference(s) between sale and bailment in law?

  1. Ownership is transferred to buyer in a sale.

  2. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods.

  3. In a contract of bailment, both (1) and (2) are not applicable.

  4. Both (1) and (2) are applicable.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Ownership is transferred to buyer in the sale whereas only possession is transferred in bailment. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods in case of sale. In case of bailment, bailee is duty-bound to return the goods after the accomplishment of the purpose.

If a Demand Promissory Note is executed and a loan facility covered by a time barred DP Note is legally safe to be allowed to continue, then which act is to be quoted to justify the above?

  1. Limitation Act

  2. Banking Regulation Act

  3. Contract Act

  4. RBI Act


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

If a Demand Promissory Note is executed and a loan facility is covered by a time barred DP Note, it is legally safe to be allowed to continue under the Contract Act

What is the situation called in which there is an obligation as if there was a contract, although the technical requirements of a contract are not fulfilled?

  1. Semi-contract

  2. Quasi contract

  3. Aborted contracted

  4. Contract in absentia


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A quasi contract is not an actual contract, but is a legal substitute formed to impose equity between two parties.

What is the legal term for the following conditions?

a. An equal reduction of recovery of debts by all creditors when there are not enough funds or assets to pay the full amount. b. The removal of a problem which is against public or private policy or endangers others, including nuisances such as weeds that might catch fire on an otherwise empty lot.

  1. Discount

  2. Abatement

  3. Dividend

  4. Litigation


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Abatement is an equal reduction of recovery of debts by all creditors when there are not enough funds or assets to pay the full amount and the removal of a problem which is against public or private policy or endangers others, including nuisances such as weeds that might catch fire on an otherwise empty lot.

A and B, who are cadets in the Indian Air Force, take out an aircraft from the Jodhpur aerodrome without the authority of the commandant and fly it away to Pakistan.

Which of the following offences has/have been committed by them?

  1. Theft

  2. Criminal breach of trust

  3. Criminal misappropriation

  4. Sedition

  5. Both (1) and (4)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The act of A and B, who are cadets, has completed the components of Section 378 under Indian Penal Code. As and when the cadets take out the aircraft without the consent of authorities and fly away to Pakistan, offence of theft has been committed.

‘A’ in his madness attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits ‘A’ with an iron rod, seriously injuring him. Does B have a right of private defence?

  1. ‘B’ has no right of private defence since ‘A’ is mad.

  2. ‘B’ has right of private defence though ‘A’ is mad.

  3. ‘B’ is guilty of inflicting grievous hurt on ‘A’.

  4. Both (1) and (3)

  5. ‘A’ has a right of private defence since he is mad.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under Indian Penal Code, every person has a right of private defence in case of his body and property. 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Right of private defence is available only to adults.

  2. Right of private defence is available only to those who are capable of lawfully committing crime.

  3. Right of private defence is available only to the public servants.

  4. Right of private defence is available to all, irrespective of age and capacity.

  5. None of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under Indian Penal Code, right of private defence is available to every person, irrespective of age and capacity as provided under Section 96.

If a person with an objective to insult the modesty of a woman exposes private parts of his body to her or uses obscene words or exhibits obscene drawings, he commits an offence under which of the following sections?

  1. Section 505

  2. Section 503

  3. Section 508

  4. Section 509

  5. Section 511


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Whosoever intending to insult the modesty of a woman exposes private parts of his body to her or exhibits obscene drawings or utters any word is said to commit an offence under Section 509 of Indian Penal Code, 1860.

Culpable means

  1. blameworthy

  2. not withstanding

  3. shameworthy

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Culpable means deserving blame.

The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against the government is called

  1. defamation

  2. treason

  3. sedition

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Indian Penal Code defines sedition as an incitement of discontent or rebellion against a government or any action, especially in speech or writing, promoting such discontent or rebellion. 

______________ is an inquiry into cause of unnatural death.

  1. Inquest

  2. Investigation

  3. Viscera test

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

An inquiry into the cause of an unexplained, sudden or violent death or as to whether or not a property constitutes treasure trove.

Which of the following gives the buyer the right to reject goods, repudiate the contract and claim damages?

  1. Guarantee

  2. Indemnity

  3. Warranty

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Guarantee relates to main condition to a contract. Breach of guarantee gives the buyer the right to reject goods, repudiate the contract and claim damages.

An order passed by a Magistrate under Section 446 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is appealable to the

  1. Session Judge

  2. District Magistrate

  3. High Court

  4. Supreme Court


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Under Section 449 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, an order passed by a magistrate under Section 446 is appealable to the Session Judge.

Before being summoned, an accused has

  1. a right to participate in the proceeding

  2. no right to participate in the proceeding

  3. no rights at all

  4. a right to watch the proceedings, but cannot participate

  5. a right to have the documents, but cannot particpate


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Before being summoned, the accused has got a right to participate in the proceeding.

Which of the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?

  1. To comprehensively cover international commercial arbitration

  2. To ensure that arbitral tribunal within the limits of a court’s jurisdiction

  3. To minimise the supervisory role of the courts in the arbitral process

  4. To minimise the burden of the courts


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) To minimise the burden of the courts.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. A person may authorise an agent to enter into an arbitration agreement.

  2. A person, incapable of entering into a contract, may be a party to an arbitration agreement.

  3. An arbitration agreement remains alive even after the death of signatories thereto.

  4. Waiver may take place by the parties by acting upon the award.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A person cannot authorise an agent to enter into an arbitration agreement.

An arbitration agreement may be in the form of an

  1. arbitration clause in a contract

  2. separate agreement

  3. Either (1) or (2)

  4. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) An arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of an separate agreement.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. A party feeling aggrieved by the proceedings of an arbitrator should make a protest and continue to take part in the proceedings.

  2. An arbitration agreement in which the government is a party must comply with Article 299 of the Constitution.

  3. Waiver may take place by the parties by acting upon the award.

  4. A person may authorise an agent to enter into an arbitration agreement.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) An arbitration agreement in which the government is a party must comply with Article 299 of the Constitution.

In a new contract which replaced the old one, there was no arbitration clause. Reference was made to the arbitrator under the new contract. The contractor objected to the jurisdiction of the arbitrator.

  1. The contractor’s participation constituted waiver.

  2. The whole arbitration proceedings were invalid.

  3. The whole arbitration award was not liable to be set aside.

  4. None of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Jurisdiction cannot be objected as a separate agreement can be made for arbitration. The whole arbitration proceedings were valid.

Statement under Section 161 of the CrPC can be used to

  1. corroborate the statement in the court

  2. corroborate and contradict the statement in the court

  3. contradict the statement in the court

  4. Cannot be utilised for any purpose


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Statement under Section 161 of the CrPC is made during investigation and it can be used to contradict the statement in the court during a trial.

For summoning an accused under Section 319 of the CrPC, a statement

  1. under Section 161 of the CrPC is relevant

  2. on oath in a trial is relevant

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

For summoning an accused under Section 319 of the CrPC, a statement on oath in a trial is relevant.

'Accused statement under Section 313 of the CrPC is to be recorded on oath'

  1. The above statement is true.

  2. The above statement is false.

  3. The above statement is partially true.

  4. Cannot be determined


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The purpose of Section 313 is to give an opportunity to an accused to explain the facts appearing against him in the evidence. He is not examined here as a witness. Hence, under Section 313(2), oath is not required before taking the statement of an accused.

Ordinarily place of trial is where the

  1. offence has been committed

  2. victim resides

  3. accused resides

  4. FIR is lodged


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Ordinarily, place of trial is where the offence has been committed.

Warrant case means a case

  1. in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant

  2. in which the court, in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused

  3. relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term, not exceeding two years

  4. relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

As provided under Section 2(x), warrant case means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years.

Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view to

  1. find out a prima-facie case

  2. convict the accused

  3. authorise remand of the accused

  4. release the accused under Section 436


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view to find out an apparent nature of something on intial adjudication.

Compounding of offence under the provisions of criminal procedure code results into

  1. acquittal of accused

  2. discharge of accused

  3. acquittal only if the charges have been framed

  4. discharge only if the charges have been framed


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Compounding of offence means not to prosecute a criminal offender in exchange of money or other consideration. Hence, it an acquittal of accused.

Which of the following is not a criminal court?

  1. Court of session

  2. Judicial magistrate of second class

  3. Executive magistrate

  4. None of these


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Right, because all above said courts are criminal courts.

The application for monthly allowance for interim maintenance and expenses under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code shall be disposed of

  1. within 45 days from the date of notice of application to party

  2. within 60 days from the date of notice of application to party

  3. within 30 days from the date of notice of application to party

  4. within 15 days from the date of notice of application to party


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The application for monthly allowance for interim maintenance and expenses under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code shall be disposed of within 60 days from the date of notice of application to party.

Which of the following is/are correct in respect to summons?

  1. A court order directing a person to appear at a specific time and place

  2. Can be issued in criminal and civil cases

  3. Can be issued by a local police inspector

  4. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Summons are when a court order directs a person to appear at a specific time and place. It can be issued in criminal and civil cases. 

What is a "cognizance"?

  1. It means custody without warrant.

  2. It means crime.

  3. It means arousing judicial notice or knowledge.

  4. It means custody with warrant.


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Cognizance means a judicial notice as taken by a court in dealing with a case. 

The period of limitation to take cognizance of an offence punishable for a term of more than three years imprisonment is

  1. 90 days

  2. one year

  3. three years

  4. No period of limitation is prescribed


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Nothing is provided under law to take cognizance of an offence punishable for a term of more than three years of imprisonment.

As per law, extortion is treated exactly like

  1. theft

  2. robbery

  3. kidnapping

  4. between theft and robbery


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Extortion takes a middle place between theft and robbery as per Indian Penal Code. 

What is the punishment for offences of obscene acts and songs?

  1. Monetary fine only

  2. Three days detention

  3. Imprisonment up to 3 months

  4. No major puinshment


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Under Section 294 of Indian Penal Code, whoever does any obscene act in any public place or sings, recites or utters any obscene song, ballad or words in or near any public place shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three months or with fine or with both.   

A plans to murder B and carries out his plans with clockwork precision. Then,

  1. actus reus is involved

  2. mens rea is involved

  3. actus reus and mens rea are involved

  4. neither actus reus nor mens rea is involved


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

A's plan is mens rea, that means intention to do the act. Execution of plan is an actus reus.

Can a child under seven years of age be arrested?

  1. Yes

  2. No

  3. Circumstantial

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

A child under seven years of age cannot be arrested as law presumes that he is totally incapax to have a guilty mind.

Which of the following is/are essential for causing death by rash or negligent act?

  1. Not amounting to culpable homicide

  2. Acts under intoxication

  3. Rash or negligent act

  4. Both (1) and (3)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide shall be punished under Section 304 A of the Indian Penal Code.

An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a High Court if the High Court

  1. has on appeal, reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death

  2. certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court

  3. has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate court and has convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a High Court if the High Court has on appeal, reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death or certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court or has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate court and has convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death.

X takes a girl out of the custody of her parents. Which of the following is/are available as defence to X if he is charged under Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code on the ground that the girl was not a major at the time of act?

  1. The girl was a university student and able to understand what is right and wrong.

  2. The girl was maltreated by her parents and X has saved her from them.

  3. The girl seems to be above the age of eighteen years.

  4. None of these

  5. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Nothing above is a valid defence to X. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

“Nothing in Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence” is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under

  1. Section 127

  2. Section 128

  3. Section 129

  4. Section 126


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) “Nothing in Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 shall be taken to exempt any barrister, pleader, attorney or vakil from giving evidence of any matter of which he may be compelled to give evidence” is provided by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under Section 129 of the Evidence Act.

In criminal cases, previous good character is

  1. irrelevant

  2. relevant

  3. relevant if proved with oath

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) In criminal proceedings, the fact that the person accused is of a good character is relevant.

Doctrine of “Res Gestae” speaks of

  1. relevancy of documentary evidence

  2. relevancy of primary evidence

  3. relevancy of facts forming part of some transaction

  4. relevancy of judgments of Court of Justice


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) Doctrine of “Res Gestae” speaks of relevancy of facts forming part of some transaction.

In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person shall be

  1. competent witness

  2. incompetent witness

  3. competent witness only if they are major and with the consent of the other

  4. competent witness only if they are sane and with the consent of the other


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) In criminal proceedings against any person, the husband or wife of such person shall be competent witness.

The question is whether “A” was ravished. The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she has been ravished is

  1. relevant as conduct

  2. admissible as conduct

  3. not relevant as conduct

  4. a subject matter of enquiry


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Here, A, without making a complaint, said that she had been ravished. It may be relevant as a dying declaration under Section 32, clause (1) or as corroborative evidence under Section 157.

As per the preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this act is

  1. to provide, define and amend the law of evidence

  2. to provide, consolidate the law of evidence

  3. to define and amend the law of evidence

  4. to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this act is to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence.

Where a document is executed in several parts, there

  1. each part is a primary evidence of the document

  2. each part cannot be primary evidence of the document

  3. each counter part is secondary evidence

  4. only main part is primary, while rest is secondary evidence of the document


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Section 62 of Evidence Act makes it clear that where a document is executed in several parts, each part is a primary evidence of the document.

The contents of a document may be proved

  1. only by primary evidence

  2. by primary as well as secondary evidence

  3. only by secondary evidence

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) The contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.

The fact of which the court will take judicial notice under Indian Evidence Act, 1872

  1. needs to be proved

  2. is optional to be proved

  3. needs not to be proved

  4. is better to be proved


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) The fact of which the court will take judicial notice needs to be proved is provided under Section 56 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

W, a Hindu girl aged 14 years, marries H, a Hindu boy, by exchanging garlands in a temple. Later on, W finds that H is impotent. W leaves the matrimonial home and marries Z.

Give the best assertion to the facts.

  1. W can be punished for bigamy.

  2. W cannot be punished for bigamy.

  3. W cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of improper solemnisation of marriage.

  4. W cannot be punished for bigamy because her first marriage was not valid on account of impotency of H.

  5. Either (3) or (4)


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

This is a valid ground for releasing W from the liability of committing bigamious marriage. 

Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when an accused says that he did not make confession, it is called

  1. extra-judicial confession

  2. judicial confession

  3. retracted confession

  4. retracted extra-judicial confession


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) A retracted confession is a statement made by an accused person before the trial begins by which he admits to have committed the offence, but which he repudiates at the trial.

Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

  1. is sometimes a conclusive proof and sometimes an inconclusive proof

  2. is corroborative in nature

  3. is supportive in nature

  4. is corroborative as well as supportive in nature


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is corroborative as well as supportive in nature.

Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in

  1. Indian Evidence Act

  2. Criminal Procedure Code

  3. Bankers Book Evidence Act

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) There are five major exceptions to the best evidence rule, and they are found in Evidence Act, which specifically authorises “other evidence” to prove the contents of a document.

In criminal cases, previous bad character is

  1. irrelevant

  2. relevant

  3. relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) In criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused person has a bad character is irrelevant unless evidence has been given that he has a good character, in which case it becomes relevant.

Reliability of multiple dying declarations came for discussion under the case

  1. Vimal v. State of Maharashtra, 2006 AIR SCW 5953

  2. Pratap Mishra v. State of Orissa, AIR 1977 SC 1307

  3. State of Maharashtra v. Dr. Praful B Desai (2003) 4 SCC 601

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) In Vimal vs. State of Maharashtra, an accused was named in all dying declarations as per who poured kerosene on deceased and set him on fire. Dying declarations though more than one are not contradictory to and inconsistent with each other. It was held that evidence of witnesses corroborating dying declarations reliance can be placed on such dying declarations.

'An accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars' is a

  1. presumption of fact

  2. presumption of law

  3. conclusive proof

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act says that the court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of any credit unless corroborated in material particulars. It is a presumtion of law.

Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the

  1. appeal to Supreme Court

  2. appeal by indigent person

  3. appeal from appellate decrees

  4. appeal against orders


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) Order 42 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the appeal from appellate decrees.

“The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under S. 12 of the Indian Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non-access, which is a negative proof.” It was so held in the case

  1. Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik Mohammed Hasan AIR 2006 AP 48

  2. Siddaramesh v. State of Karnataka (2010) 3 SCC 152

  3. Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 2007 SC 107

  4. Somwanti v. State of Punjab AIR 1963 SC 151


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) The court in Shaik Fakruddin v. Shaik Mohammed Hasan observed that the court has the power to order a person to undergo medical test and such an order would not be in violation of the right of personal liberty under Article 21 of the constitution. However, the court should not exercise such a power only when it is expedient in the interest of justice and when the fact situation in a given case warrants such an exercise. The DNA test cannot rebut the conclusive presumption envisaged under Section 12 of the Evidence Act. The parties can avoid the rigor of such conclusive presumption only by proving non access, which is a negative proof.

Which of the following provisions of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to affidavit?

  1. Order 17

  2. Order 19

  3. Order 26

  4. Order 39


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Order 19 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 ie related to affidavit.

“The time-tested rule is that acquittal of a guilty person should be preferred to conviction of an innocent person. Unless the prosecution establishes the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doublt, a conviction cannot be passed on the accused. A criminal court cannot afford to deprive liberty of the appellants, lifelong liberty, without having at least a reasonable level of certainty that the appellants were the real culprits.” In which case did the Supreme Court hold so?

  1. Rang Bahadur Singh v. State of U.P. AIR 2000 SC 1209

  2. Ramanath v. State AIR 1953 SC 420 (Supreme Court)

  3. Sardul Singh Caveeshar v. State of Bombay AIR 1957 SC 747 (Supreme Court)

  4. State v. Nalini AIR 1999 SC 2640 (Supreme Court)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Supreme Court held so in the case of Rang Bahadur Singh v. State of UP.

Under which provision of CPC is a plaint rejected by the courts in the absence of cause of action?

  1. Order 7 Rule 11 (a)

  2. Order 7 Rule 11 (b)

  3. Order 7 Rule 11 (d)

  4. Order 7 Rule 11 (c)


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Under the provisions of Order VII Rule 11 (a) of Code of Civil Procedure, a plaint shall be rejected where it doesn’t disclose a cause of action.

A “Caveat” shall not remain in force after the expiry of

  1. 30 days of its filing

  2. 60 days of its filing

  3. 90 days of its filing

  4. 120 days of its filing


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) Where a caveat has been lodged under sub-section (1) of Section 148A of Code of Civil Procedure, such caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the date on which it was lodged.

Under which provision of CPC is attachment before judgement provided?

  1. Order 39 Rules 1, 2

  2. Order 40 Rule 1

  3. Section 96

  4. Order 38 Rules 5-13


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Attachment before judgement is provided under Order 38 Rules 5-13 of Code of Civil Procedure.

Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 under

  1. Order 21 Rule 30

  2. Order 21 Rule 31

  3. Order 21 Rule 32

  4. Order 21 Rule 34


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) Execution of decree for specific performance for restitution of conjugal rights or for an injunction is provided under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 under Order 21 Rule 32.

A “Garneeshe order” under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is issued to

  1. judgement debtor

  2. judgement debtor’s creditor

  3. decree holder

  4. judgement debtor’s debtor


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Garnishee means a judgment debtor’s debtor. He is a person or institution that is indebted to another whose property has been subject to garnishment. He is a person who is liable to pay a debt to a judgment debtor or to deliver any movable property to him. Garnisher is a judgment-creditor (decree-holder) who initiates a garnishment action to reach the debtor’s property that is thought to be held or owned by a third party.

Which of the following orders of CPC is related to “set-off” and “counter-claims”?

  1. Order VI

  2. Order VIII

  3. Order VII

  4. Order IX


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Order VIII of Code of Civil Procedure is related to “set-off” and “counter-claims”.

Which of the following is not correctly matched according to the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?

  1. Legal Representative: Section 50

  2. Letter of Request: Section 77

  3. Notice: Section 80

  4. Res-Sub-Judice: Section 10


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(a) Legal Representative: Section 50 (b) Letter of Request: Section 77 (c) Notice: Section 80 (d) Res-Sub-Judice: Section 11

“It is a statement of claim, a document by presentation of which the suit is instituted”. It is called

  1. affidavit

  2. written statement

  3. counter claim

  4. plaint


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) A document by presentation of which the suit is instituted is called a plaint.

A person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made is called

  1. decree defaulter

  2. decree holder

  3. decree debtor

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) A person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made is called decree holder.

A statement given by judge on the ground of decree or order is called

  1. order

  2. decree

  3. judgement

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) A statement given by judge on the ground of decree or order is called judgement.

Under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, “Foreign Court” means

  1. a court situated outside India

  2. a court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India

  3. a court situated in India, applying foreign law

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, “Foreign Court” means a court situated outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.

Supplementary proceedings under Section 94 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not include

  1. arrest before judgement

  2. attachment before judgement

  3. temporary injunction

  4. appointment of executor


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) In order to prevent the ends of justice from being defeated, a court may

(a) issue a warrant to arrest the defendant and bring him before the court to show cause why he should not give security for his appearance and if he fails to comply with any order for security, commit him to the civil prison; (b) direct the defendant to furnish security to produce any property belonging to him and to place the same at the disposal of the court or order the attachment of any property; (c) grant a temporary injunction and in case of disobedience, commit the person guilty thereof to the civil prison and order that his property be attached and sold.

A suit for the recovery of property may be instituted in the court

  1. where the defendant resides

  2. where the plaintiff resides

  3. where the property situates

  4. where the cause of action arises


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) General rule is that a suit for the recovery of property may be instituted in the court where the subject matter of the dispute situates.

“Guardian at litem” used under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means a

  1. local commissioner

  2. court

  3. person defending a suit on behalf of an insane person

  4. person defending a suit on behalf of a minor


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) “Guardian at litem” used under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means a person defending a suit on behalf of a minor.

“Mesne Profits” of property means the profits

  1. received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property

  2. received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him

  3. received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of bailment

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) As per Section 2(12) of the CPC, “mesne profits” of property means those profits which the person in wrongful possession of such property actually received or might, with ordinary diligence, have received therefrom, together with interest on such profits, but shall not include profits due to improvements made by the person in wrongful possession.

In case of a Hindu minor unmarried girl, the natural guardian is the

  1. father

  2. mother

  3. father and after him, the mother provided that the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with mother

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

In case of a Hindu minor unmarried girl, the natural guardian is the father and after him, the mother provided that the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of five years shall ordinarily be with mother.

Any marriage solemnised between two Hindus is void if at the date of such marriage, either party had a husband or wife living and the provisions of Section(s) ________ of the Indian Penal Code shall apply accordingly.

  1. 494 and 495

  2. 495

  3. 494

  4. 476


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Any marriage solemnised between two Hindus is void if at the date of such marriage, either party had a husband or wife living and the provisions of sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code shall apply accordingly.

Under shia law, how many witnesses are required at the time of divorce?

  1. Three

  2. Two

  3. One

  4. None


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Under shia law, he must be of sound mind and must have attained the age of puberty. It must be pronounced orally in the presence of two witnesses unless he is unable to speak. 

Where any direction for registration has been issued, any person contravening any rule made in this behalf shall be punishable with fine, which may extend to

  1. sixty rupees

  2. twenty-five rupees

  3. fifty rupees

  4. five rupees


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Section 8 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that where any direction for registration has been issued, any person contravening any rule made in this behalf shall be punishable with fine, which may extend to twenty-five rupees only. 

Section 25 of the Limitation Act provides

  1. acquisition of easement by prescription

  2. exclusion in favours of reversioner of servient tenement

  3. extinguishment of right to property

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 25 of the Limitation Act provides provisions for acquisition of easement by prescription.

Section 22 refers to cases of

  1. continuing breach of contract

  2. successive breach of contract

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 22 refers to cases of continuing breach of contract.

Talaq-ul-Biddat is not recognised by

  1. Shias

  2. Sunnis

  3. Suffis

  4. (1) and (3)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Shias and Malikis do not recognise this form. Shia law does not recognise any form of irrevocable talaq. It is legally valid for Sunnis but not for Shias. Talaq-ul-Biddat is recognised by Sunni muslims but considered sinful. It has been said that this type of Talaq is theologically improper. 

Section 10 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 states

  1. persons who may be adopted

  2. conditions for a valid adoption

  3. effects of adoption

  4. valid adoption not to be cancelled


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 10 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 states persons who may be adopted.

In adoption, which of the following conditions must be complied with?

  1. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive father or mother by whom the adoption is made must not have a Hindu son living at the time of adoption.
  2. If the adoption is of a daughter, the adoptive father or mother by whom the adoption is made must not have a Hindu daughter living at the time of adoption.
  3. If the adoption is by a male and the person to be adopted is a female, the adoptive father must be at least twenty one years older than the person to be adopted.
  1. 1

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

In adoption, the following conditions must be complied with:

  1. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive father or mother by whom the adoption is made must not have a Hindu son living at the time of adoption.
  2. If the adoption is of a daughter, the adoptive father or mother by whom the adoption is made must not have a Hindu daughter living at the time of adoption.
  3. If the adoption is by a male and the person to be adopted is a female, the adoptive father must be at least twenty one years older than the person to be adopted.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. Effect of acknowledgement — Section 17

  2. Effect of fraud or mistake — Section 16

  3. Exclusion of time in certain other cases — Section 15

  4. Exclusion of time of proceeding in court without jurisdiction — Section 13


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Effect of acknowledgement — Section 18 Effect of fraud or mistake — Section 17 Exclusion of time in certain other cases — Section 15 Exclusion of time of proceeding in court without jurisdiction — Section 14  

Expulsion of a partner is given under

  1. Section 31

  2. Section 32

  3. Section 33

  4. Section 34


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Expulsion of a partner is given under Section 33 of the Partnership Act, 1932.

Section 12 provides

  1. exclusion of time in legal proceedings

  2. exclusion of time in cases where leave to sue of appeal as a pauper is applied

  3. exclusion of time of proceeding bonafide in court without jurisdiction

  4. exclusion of time in certain other cases


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 12 of the Limitation Act states provisions for exclusion of time in legal proceedings. Section 13 of the Limitation Act deals with the provisions of exclusion of time in cases where leave to sue or appeal as a pauper is applied for. Section 14 deals with exclusion of time of proceeding bonafide in court without jurisdiction. Section 15 of the Limitation Act states provisions for exclusion of time in certain other cases.

  

The ________ may, by notification in the Official Gazette, direct that the provisions of registration shall not apply to a state or to any part thereof specified in the notification.

  1. State Government

  2. High Court

  3. Supreme Court

  4. Central Government


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Under section 56 of the Partnership Act, the State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, direct that the provisions of registration shall not apply to a state or to any part thereof specified in the notification.

An outgoing partner may carry on a business competing with that of the firm and he may advertise such business, but subject to contract to the company, he may not

  1. use the firm name

  2. represent himself as carrying on the business of the firm

  3. solicit the custom of persons who were dealing with the firm before he ceased to be a partner

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Under Section 36 of the Partnership Act, an outgoing partner may carry on a business competing with that of the firm and he may advertise such business, but subject to contract to the company, he may not a) use the firm name, b) represent himself as carrying on the business of the firm, and c) solicit the custom of persons who were dealing with the firms before he ceased to be a partner.   

Section 50 of Partnership act provides

  1. personal profits earned after dissolution

  2. return of premium on premature dissolution

  3. rights where partnership contract is rescinded for fraud or misrepresentation

  4. agreement of restraint of trade


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Section 50 of Partnership Act provides provisions for personal profits earned after dissolution.

What type of consideration is required in a valid contract?

  1. Unlawful consideration

  2. Lawful consideration

  3. Consideration does not matter

  4. Any type of consideration


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

It means that consideration which is enforced by law and also relevant for making a valid contract under Section 10 of the Contract Act, 1872.

Which of the following matchings is/are wrong?

  1. Liability of estate of deceased partner — Section 35

  2. Right of outgoing partner to carry on competing business — Section 36

  3. Right of outgoing partner in certain cases to share subsequent profits — Section 38

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Liability of estate of deceased partner — Section 35 Right of outgoing partner to carry on competing business — Section 36 Right of outgoing partner in certain cases to share subsequent profits — Section 37

 

Which of the following is a holy place in Punjab?

  1. Jalandhar

  2. Ludhiana

  3. Bathinda

  4. Amritsar


Correct Option: D

Price under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 means

  1. money or moneys worth

  2. monetary consideration for the sale of goods

  3. any consideration that can be expressed in terms of money

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Sale of Goods Act defines that price means the money consideration for the sale of goods.

A contract of sale is

  1. executory contract

  2. executed contract

  3. executory contract or executed contract

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) An executed contract is one where all parties have fully performed all of the terms, promises and obligations within the contract and an executory contract is the one where the terms, obligations and promises have not yet been performed. Contract of sale is an executory contract with regards to agreement to sell and executed contract with regards to contract of sale.

Goods must be the same as wanted by the seller. This is

  1. condition as to description

  2. condition as to wholesomeness

  3. condition as to sample

  4. condition as to title


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Under the Sale of Goods Act, where there is a contract for the sale of goods by description, there is an implied condition that the goods shall correspond with the description.

Provisions relating to doctrine of caveat emptor are laid down in the

  1. Sale of Goods Act, 1930

  2. Indian Contract Act, 1872

  3. Indian Partnership Act, 1932

  4. Companies Act, 1956


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Caveat emptor defines a maxim “qui ignorare non debuit quod jus alienum emit” which means let the purchaser beware; who ought not to be ignorant that he is purchasing the rights of another. Upon a sale of goods, the general rule with regard to their nature or quality is caveat emptor.

To obtain a mandatory injunction under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, the plaintiff must show that there has been a breach of obligation in the nature of

  1. legal obligation

  2. It is necessary to maintain status quo

  3. None of these

  4. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) An injunction under Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act may be granted to prevent the breach of legal obligation where it is necessary to maintain status quo.

Any person having possession or control over an article of movable property, of which he is not the owner, may be compelled to deliver it to the person entitled to the immediate possession in which of the following cases?

  1. When the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff

  2. When the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

(3) Any person having the possession or control of a particular article of movable property of which he is not the owner may be compelled specifically to deliver it to the person entitled to its immediate possession in any of the following cases: (a) when the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent or trustee of the plaintiff (b) when compensation in money would not afford the plaintiff adequate relief for the loss of the thing claimed (c) when it would be extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage caused by its loss (d) when the possession of the thing claimed has been wrongfully transferred from the plaintiff

Which of the following sections under the Specific Relief Act deals with specific performance with variation?

  1. Section 18

  2. Section 19

  3. Section 20

  4. Section 21


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Section 18 under the Specific Relief Act deals with specific performance with variation.

Under the Specific Relief Act, the declaratory decree can

  1. be declined

  2. not be declined

  3. be commuted

  4. be withheld


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) All the provisions of the Specific Relief Act based on the descretion of the court. Even all the conditions for a declaratory decree are fulfilled even then the court can decline for the relief.

The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on

  1. 1st August, 1882

  2. 1st July, 1882

  3. 1st September, 1882

  4. 1st October, 1882


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) It came into force on the first day of July, 1882.

Where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations, the court may, in a proper case, cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue. This provision is provided in the Specific Relief Act under

  1. Section 21

  2. Section 32

  3. Section 42

  4. Section 40


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Section 32 of the Specific Relief Act states that where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations, the court may, in a proper case, cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue.

Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. Gift is the transfer of ownership without consideration.

  2. Gift should be accepted during the lifetime of the owner.

  3. If donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.

  4. Gift may be made only of movable property.


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Section 122 defines that "Gift" is the transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration by one person called the donor to another called the donor and accepted by or on behalf of the donee. Acceptance to the gift must be made during the lifetime of the donor and while he is still capable of giving. If the donee dies before acceptance, the gift is void.

The transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and to which the transferor was subject in respect thereof

  1. at the date of transfer

  2. before the date of transfer

  3. after 15 days from the date of transfer

  4. before 15 days from the date of transfer


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

(1) Section 132 of the Transfer of Property Act states that the transferee of an actionable claim shall take it subject to all the liabilities and equities and to which the transferor was subject in respect thereof at the date of the transfer.

Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is not applicable

  1. where the transfer is by way of sale

  2. where the transfer is by way of gift

  3. where the transfer is by way of exchange

  4. where the transfer is by way of lease


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

(4) Section 12 clearly states that nothing in this section applies to a condition in a lease for the benefit of the lessor or those claiming under him.

Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the “direction for accumulation”?

  1. Section 14

  2. Section 17

  3. Section 19

  4. Section 18


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

(2) Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with the “direction for accumulation”.

Ryder Cup is related with which of the following sports?

  1. Football

  2. Golf

  3. Badminton

  4. Cricket


Correct Option: B

A boy commits an offence of rape if he does sexual intercourse with a girl

  1. against her will

  2. without her consent

  3. with or without her consent if she is under sixteen years of age

  4. Either 1 or 2

  5. 1, 2 and 3


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Indian Penal Code u/s 375 defines rape as when a person commits sexual intercourse with a woman against her will or without her consent and consent is immaterial if she is under sixteen years of age. Indian Penal Code u/s 375 defines rape as when a person commits sexual intercourse with a woman against her will or without her consent and consent is immaterial if she is under sixteen years of age.

Whosoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to do that thing

  1. unlawfully

  2. lawfully

  3. dishonestly

  4. knowingly

  5. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Causing wrongful gain to one person or wrongful loss to another person is said to be done dishonestly.

Can commutation of death sentence under Indian Penal Code be made without the consent of the offender?

  1. Yes

  2. No

  3. It depends on the discretion of court.

  4. If high court thinks fit, then it can be commuted without the consent of the offender.

  5. With the consent of central government.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

For the commutation of death sentence, consent of the offender is not required under Indian Penal Code

Defendant includes

  1. any person from or through whom a defendant derives his liability to be sued

  2. any person whose estate is represented by the defendant as executor, administrator or other representative

  3. Both (1) and (2)

  4. None of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

As provided in the definition section under the Limitation Act, defendant includes any person from or through whom a defendant derives his liability to be sued and any person whose estate is represented by the defendant as executor, administrator or other representative. 

Which court is regarded as the guardian of the fundamental rights of the people?

  1. Privy Council

  2. Federal Court

  3. High Court

  4. Supreme Court


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Supreme Court is regarded as the guardian of the fundamental rights of the people. It is the supreme or final interpreter of the constitution. The interpretation of the constitution given by the Supreme Court is to be respected.

Consolidated fund of India and States is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

  1. Article 215

  2. Article 234

  3. Article 266

  4. Article 227


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Consolidated fund of India and States is mentioned in Article 266 of the constitution.

The word 'socialist' was added by the ________ Constitutional Amendment.

  1. 44th

  2. 42nd

  3. 25th

  4. 24th


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The word 'socialist' was added in the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.

The author the book “My Country My Life” is

  1. Sonia Gandhi

  2. L. K. Advani

  3. Jaswant Singh

  4. Amrita Pritam


Correct Option: B

The National Old age Pension Scheme has been extended to cover the entire BPL population of above _______ of age.

  1. 55 years

  2. 60 years

  3. 62 years

  4. 65 years


Correct Option: D

The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means

  1. all decisions of the Supreme Court are recorded

  2. all statements of the Supreme Court are binding law

  3. power to punish for its contempt

  4. Both (2) and (3)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

The Supreme Court shall be a court of record means all statements of the Supreme Court are binding law and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Minimum number of judges which can give an advisory opinion to the President is

  1. one-third of the total strength of the Supreme Court

  2. five

  3. half of the total strength of the Supreme Court

  4. seven


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Minimum number of judges which can give an advisory opinion to the President is half of the total strength of the Supreme Court.

The ratio of width to length of the National Flag is

  1. 3 : 4

  2. 2 : 3

  3. 1 : 2

  4. 5 : 6


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The ratio of width to length of the National Flag is 2:3.

Impeachment of judges is provided in Article ____ of the constitution.

  1. 31

  2. 134(4)

  3. 324(2)

  4. 124(4)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Article 124(4) of the constitution states provision for the impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court.

If the Supreme Court is asked by the President to give advice on a question of law under Article 143, then the Supreme Court

  1. is bound to give advice

  2. may refuse to give advice

  3. may dismiss the presidential reference as nonsense

  4. None of these


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

If the Supreme Court is asked by the President to give advice on a question of law under Article 143, then the Supreme Court may refuse to give advice.

The basic distinction between civil and criminal laws is

  1. civil laws deal with matters of restoration of right

  2. criminal laws deal with punishment

  3. criminal laws deal with wrongs which are harmful to society at large

  4. Both (1) and (2)


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Civil law refers to a law dealing with the rights and duties of individuals towards each other. Criminal law is a part of public law as the society or the people are directly involved.

The President is the head of the union executive. Such power has been given to him by the

  1. Constitution of India

  2. Parliament

  3. Special Commission appointed from time to time for this purpose

  4. Supreme Court of India


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The President is the head of the union executive. Such power has been given to him by the Constitution of India.

A command by the court asking a public authority to perform its public duty is called the writ of

  1. mandamus

  2. quo warranto

  3. prohibition

  4. certiorari


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court, to any government subordinate court, corporation or public authority to do or forbear from doing some specific act, which that body is obliged under law to do.

Provisions relating to amendment of the constitution are contained in

  1. Article 356

  2. Article 370

  3. Article 368

  4. Article 375


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Provisions relating to amendment of the constitution are contained in Article 368.

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