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Microbiology and Immunology

Description: Microbiology
Number of Questions: 50
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Tags: Microbiology MDS (Masters in Dental Surgery) Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Measurable Properties of Gases Liquifaction of Gases
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Interleukins and growth factors are ______________.

  1. cytokines

  2. lipoxins

  3. enzymes

  4. hormones


Correct Option: A
Explanation:
  1. Cytokines are mediators that regulate immunological, inflammatory and reparative host response.
    1. They are produced by cells like lymphocytes, macrophages, platelets, etc.
    2. Their action is local not systemic.
    3. They have effect on growth and differentiation of various cells.

Which of the following culture media is used for Candida albican?

  1. Pongo Levin medium

  2. Methylene blue medium

  3. Sabouraud’s agar

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Candida cultures can be obtained on  Sabouraud’s agar. Other media used to culture fungi are cornmeal agar and Czapek-Dox medium.

Which of the following can be used to sterilize the heat labile instruments for use in surgical procedures?

  1. Absolute alcohol

  2. Ultraviolet rays

  3. Chlorine-releasing compounds

  4. Ethylene oxide gas


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Mechanism of Action - Alkylation of amino, carboxyl, etc., group of proteins. Use: To sterilized heat-labile instruments  like dental equipment, heart lung machines, etc. Disadvantage: It is potentially mutagenic and carcinogenic.

The tissue of the origin of the Kaposi’s sarcoma is _____________.

  1. lymphoid

  2. vascular

  3. neural

  4. muscular


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a highly vascular (angioblastic) tumour of the skin characterized by soft purplish plaques and papules.

Most commonly used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is __________.

  1. MacConkey’s medium

  2. Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar

  3. Nutrient agar

  4. Tellurite medium


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Mitis-Salivarius-Bacitracin agar (MSA) with 20% sucrose and 0.2 U bacitracin/ml is a selective medium for streptococcus mutans. Bacitracin present in the medium suppresses the growth of most non-S.mutans colonies.

On which of the following is the Lancefield classification based?

  1. M protein

  2. Carbohydrate C antigen

  3. Cell-wall peptidoglycan

  4. T protein


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

B-hemolytic streptococci are classified on the basis of group-specific C carbohydrate antigen on cell wall into 20 lancefield groups (A To V except I and J). Group A streptococci are further classified by serological typing of (M) proteins into Griffith types.

The most common microorganism causing subacute bacterial endocarditis, after oral surgical procedure is ____________.

  1. streptococcus viridians

  2. streptococcus mutans

  3. streptococcus aureus

  4. staphylococcus albus


Correct Option: A
Explanation:
  1. It is also called endocarditis lenta.
    1. It is caused by the streptococcus viridans group, enterococci.
    2. It occurs on damaged valves.
    3. Acute endocarditis-main cause is staphylococcus aureus. Acute endocarditis is more fatal than subacute bacterial endocarditis.

The immunoglobulin used in the preparation of caries vaccine for the prevention of dental caries is __________________.

  1. IgG

  2. IgA

  3. IgM

  4. IgD


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

IgA is involved in protection against caries as it inhibits adherence of microorganism to the mucosal surfaces and therefore their disposal by swallowing. IgA is also the major immune globulin in salvia. It is also used in the preparation of caries vaccine for prevention of dental caries because of the above said reason.

Viruses produce _________ but bacterias do not.

  1. interferons

  2. endotoxins

  3. exotoxins

  4. bacitracins


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Interferons are a family of host-coded proteins produced by cells on induction by viral inducer. Interferon does not act on virus, but it renders other host cells refractory to virus. Interferons (IFNs) are natural cell-signaling proteins produced by the cells of the immune system of most vertebrates in response to challenges, such as viruses, parasites and tumour cells.

Which of the following is not a part of Koch’s postulate?

  1. Bacteria may or may not cause disease in experimental animals.

  2. Bacteria should be isolated from the diseased animals.

  3. Bacteria should be cultivable outside the animal.

  4. Bacteria should be able to cause the same disease or condition when inoculated in another animal.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Koch’s postulates were first indicated by Henle but enumerated by Koch and they determine whether a microorganism is pathogenic or not.

__________ is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis.

  1. EBV

  2. HSV

  3. CMV

  4. Hanta virus


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

EBV is a causative agent of

  1.  Infectious mononucleosis
  2.  Burkitt’s lymphoma 
  3.  Nasophanygeal carcinoma.

What is the main function of T-cells?

  1. Lymphokine production and delayed hypersensitivity

  2. Antigen-antibody reaction (complement activation)

  3. Anaphylaxis (immediate hypersensitivity)

  4. Antibiotic production


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

T-cells produce lymphokines, cytokines and induce cell-mediated immunity (CMI). Delayed hypersensitivity refers to appearance of reaction after 48-42 hours. It is medicated by T-lymphocytes. Delayed hypersensitivity is cell-mediated immunity.

_________ is the process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus.

  1. Transduction

  2. Transformation

  3. Transcription

  4. Integration


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Transduction - It is transfer of portion of DNA, from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage. It can be a transfer of DNA, episomes or plasmids. It is the most widespread mechanism of gene transfer in prokaryotes.

____________ are the most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU.

  1. Gram-positive organisms

  2. Gram-negative organisms

  3. Mycoplasma

  4. Virus infections


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Nosocomial infections are hospital-acquired infections, which develop in hospitalized patients. Streptococcus pyogenes was the most important causative organism in the ICU,  but due to antibiotic sensitivity, it is now hardly encountered.

HIV can be detected and confirmed by ______________.

  1. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

  2. reverse transcriptase

  3. real time PCR

  4. mimic PCR


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Polymerase chain reaction is the gold standard for diagnosis in all of HIV. Reverse transcriptase PCR is sensitive for viral nucleic acid (RNA). It can detect a single copy of RNA or proviral DNA from infected cells.

Which of the following is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranes?

  1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.

  2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.

  3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.

  4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The resident normal microbial flora cannot be completely or permanently removed, while transient ones are temporary. The number of superficial microorganisms can be diminished completely eradicated.

All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except ______________.

  1. the Neisseria meningitides

  2. the Salmonella typhi

  3. the Streptococcus pyogenes

  4. the Legionella pneumophila


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Neisseria, salmonella typhi and legionella can survive intracellularly but not S.pyogenes.

  1. Neisseria meningitidis is found in spinal even inside leucocytes (intracellularly).
  2. Legionella can enter alveolar macrophages.
  3. Salmonella typhi can multiply within polymorphs, and hence can resist intracellular killing.

Which of the following human IgG subclass has maximum serum concentration?

  1. IgG1

  2. IgG2

  3. IgG3

  4. IgG4


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Four subclasses of IgG and their distribution are as follows:

  1. IgG1-65% (Max)
  2. IgG2-23%
  3. IgI3-8%
  4. IgG4-4%(Min)

Mycotic abscesses are due to ____________.

  1. bacterial infection

  2. fungal infection

  3. viral infection

  4. mixed infection


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Mycoses are fungal infections, e.g., superficial mycoses, systemic mycoses. Mycotic abscess-soft cystic mass with slight inflammation caused by hyaline and decataceous fungi and nocardia species.

Which of the following immunoglobulins mediates Type I hypersensitivity?

  1. IgA

  2. IgG

  3. IgM

  4. IgE


Correct Option: D
Explanation:
  1. It is also called anaphylactic, IgE or regain-dependent hypersensitivity.
    1. In this, the cytotropic IgE antibodies, are fixed on surface of cells like mast cells and basophils.

How can the blood spills in the hospital be disinfected?

  1. With quaternary ammonium compounds

  2. By sodium hypochlorite

  3. By plain soap and water

  4. By Cetavlon


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Steps to disinfect blood spills: Disposable towels or wipes should be used to wine up the spill by gloved hands. Diluted bleach (sodium hypochlorite) solution is then used to disinfect the area. If blood is not wiped properly by towel, then disinfectant will not act.

An advanced diagnostic technique, which has been suggested as an alternative to culture method is __________.

  1. phase contrast microscopy

  2. direct immunofluorescence

  3. latex agglutination

  4. indirect immunofluorescent microscope assays


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Darkfield or phase contrast microscopy is alternative to culture methods.

Which of the following Laboratory test is for the diagnosis of ANUG?

  1. Dark field

  2. Tissue culture

  3. Phase contrast

  4. ELISA


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

The defined diagnosis of ANUG can be established mainly on the basis of clinical findings. Since,  it is a fusospirochetal infection, dark field microscopy can also be used to detect spirochetes. However, dark field microscopy is unsuitable for examining oral lesions as many nonpathogenic treponemes found in the mouth may be confused with the causative agents. Tissue culture and subsequent tissue smear can also be used to confirm ANUG.

Why is Lactobacillus cariogenic?

  1. It is acidogenic and aciduric.

  2. It is most abundant in saliva.

  3. It is the only acidogenic bacteria in the oral cavity.

  4. None of these


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Lactobacillus is both acidogenic and aciduric bacteria and therefore causes caries. Acidogenic bacteria are acid-producing bacteria. The acid produced damages dentin and other mineralized structures of teeth. Acidouric bacteria are bacteria that can grow well in acidic medium.

Most common malignancy in AIDS is ____________.

  1. the Kaposi's sarcoma

  2. the Hodgkin's lumphoma

  3. the Squamous cell carcinoma

  4. the Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Opportunistic malignancies typically associated with HIV infection are Kaposi's sarcoma.

Which of the following regions is responsible for antibody activity?

  1. Light chain constant

  2. Light chain variable

  3. Heavy chain constant

  4. Heavy chain variable


Correct Option: B
Explanation:
  1.  Antigen-combining site of an antibody is at amino terminus.
    1.  It has both light and heavy chains.
    2. The amino acid sequence in aminoterminal is variable. This variable region determines immunological specificity.

Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is __________.

  1. zinc

  2. manganese

  3. aluminium

  4. copper


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Adjuvants are the substances added to vaccines to improve their humoral antibody response. In DPT vaccine, aluminium phosphate and aluminium are used as adjuvants.

Which of the following option is correct regarding Virus?

  1. It is unicellular.

  2. It is acellular.

  3. It is prokaryotic.

  4. It is eukaryotic.


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Viruses do not have a cellular organization. They are acellular. They have only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. They also do not have enzymes for protein and nucleic acid synthesis. So, they have characteristics of both living organisms and nonliving objects.

Viruses that are present with oral manifestation are ______________.

  1. anthrax

  2. herpangina

  3. candiasis

  4. cryptococcosis


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Herpangia a.  It is caused by coxsackie virus. b.  It is related to intraoral lesions. c.  C/F – sore throat, cough, low grade fever, vesicles,  which rupture to form ulcers on anterior faucial pillars, hard and soft palate and posterior pharyngeal walls.

Biological false positive widal is seen in ________________.

  1. malarial infection

  2. myocardial infection

  3. leptospirosis

  4. pseudomonas infection


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Widal test It is a serological test to diagnose typhoid. It measures H and Q agglutinins for typhoid and paratyphoid bacilli. It is a tube agglutination reaction. Causes of false negative widal are a. Carrier state b. Inadequate amount of bacterium in the host c. Technical errors d.  Previous antibiotic treatment

What is chemiclave?

  1. Chemical vapour sterilization

  2. Submerging the instruments for 4 hours in chemicals

  3. Boiling for 2 hours in water and then submerging for 2 hours in chemicals

  4. None of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Chemiclave is a machine which sterilizes instruments with high pressure, high temperature water and some chemicals like alcohol and formaldehyde vapour. It is therefore a sterilization unit that uses chemicals under pressure.

Which is the best test that evaluates syphilis after treatment?

  1. TPA

  2. FTA-Abs

  3. TPHA

  4. VDRL


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

For screening of syphilis – VDRL, TPHA or combination is used. Regain test are done to monitor patient’s response after treatment as they become negative after treatment, e.g., VDRL, tests. TPHA cannot be used to evaluate syphilis after treatment as its titre remains low even after treatment but never zero.

Which of the following fungus is the most common in diabetes?

  1. Cryptococcus

  2. Aspergillus

  3. Rhodotorula

  4. Nocardia


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Aspergillus causes opportunistic infection in immunocompromized patients and debilitated hosts like HIV, diabetes and other immunocomprmised. Other opportunistic fungal infection in diabetes is candidiasis.

For how much time is the material immersed in glutaraldehyde for sterilization without corrosion?

  1. 1 hour

  2. 2 hours

  3. 3 hours

  4. 20 minutes


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Glutraladehyde is a high-level disinfection and instruments should be immersed in it for 20 minutes to avoid corrosion. About glutraldehyde

  1. It is effective against tubercle bacilli, fungi and viruses.
  2. It has no deleterious effect on lenses of instruments, therefore used to sterilize bronchoscopes, etc.

Reaction of a particulate antigen with its antibody is ______________.

  1. neutralization

  2. precipitation

  3. agglutination

  4. complement fixation


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Agglutination reactions-it is a reaction between a particulate antigen and its antibody, which results in the formation of clumps. For example: a.  Slide agglutination-blood grouping b.   Comb‘s test

Condylomata lata or condyloma latum, a cutaneous condition characterized by wart, are the secondary phase of which of the folowing?

  1. Lypus valgaris

  2. Weagener granulomatosis

  3. Syphilis

  4. All of these


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Secondary syphilis a.  It occurs 1-3 months after healing of primary lesion. b.  Characteristic mucous patches, condylomata lata, popular rashes are present. c.  It is the most infection stage.

A health care professional is at maximum danger of or most concerned with developing chronic carrier state of ______________.

  1. Hepatitis A

  2. Hepatitis B

  3. Syphilis

  4. All of the above


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Chronic carrier state is the most common with hepatitis B infection. HBV is a blood- borne virus. Medical and paramedical, staff of blood banks, dialysis units and sex workers are the high-risk groups.

Which of the following is an inactivated vaccine?

  1. Yellow fever vaccine

  2. Mumps vaccine

  3. BCG

  4. Rabies vaccine


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Antirabies vaccine – They are of two types: neural vaccines and nonneural vaccines. Semple vaccine is most widely used vaccine and it consists of 5% suspension of sheep brain infected with fixed virus and which is inactivated by phenol. BPL vaccine is a modification of semple vaccine in which B-propiolactone is used as an inactivating agent.

For what is negative staining used for?

  1. To demonstrate Bacterial spores

  2. To demonstrate Bacterial flagella

  3. To demonstrate Bacterial capsule

  4. To demonstrate Bacterial fimbriae


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Negative staining by India ink is used to demonstrate capsules. In these films, capsule is seen as a halo around bacteria.

Transport medium for typhoid bacilli is _________.

  1. bile broth

  2. selenite broth

  3. tetrathionate broth

  4. all of the above


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

For diagnosis of typhoid bacilli, blood is collected and is inoculated into a bile broth culture bottle.

Which of the following cells produce antibodies?

  1. Plasma cells

  2. Helper cells

  3. Macrophage

  4. Natural killer cells


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Immunoglobulins are proteins with known antibody activity and they are synthesized by plasma cells, which are activated B-cell.

Erythroblastosis fatalis can be prevented if the mother is injected at parturition, with an antibody called ___________.

  1. blocking antibody

  2. Rh (D) immunoglobulins

  3. antilymphocyte globulin

  4. antilymphocyte serum


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Erythroblastosis fetalis is an hemolytic disease of the newborn. It classically results from Rh incompatibility when  Rh negative mother carries a foetus,  which is Rh positive. Such Rh positive RBC of foetus when comes in contact with the blood of mother, it stimulates maternal antibody production against Rh antigens. The first pregnancy may be normal, but in subsequent pregnancy, these antibodies lyse foetal RBC causing anaemia and even death. However, maternal sensitization and antibody production can be prevented by injecting mother with Rh (D) immunoglobulin at parturition.

Which of the following temperature pressure does autoclave use?

  1. 121oC for 12 mins at 15 lbs

  2. 232oF for 30 mins at 12 lbs

  3. 160oC for 30 mins at 10 lbs

  4. 133oF for 1 hour at 15 lbs


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

Holding period in an autoclave is 121oC for 12 min at 15 lbs pressure or 134oC at 30 lbs pressure for 3 minutes.

Which of the following immunoglobulins is not known to fix complement?

  1. lgE

  2. IgM

  3. IgA

  4. IgG


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

IgG and IgM fix the complement system by classical pathway and IgA participates in complement fixation by alternate pathway.

The organism most resistant to thermal inactivation is ____________.

  1. bacterial spores

  2. virus

  3. spirochets

  4. streptococcus mutans


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

A bacterial spore is a dormant, tough, and nonreproductive structure produced by bacteria.

Actinomycosis is caused by ______.

  1. virus

  2. bacteria

  3. fungus

  4. unknown factor


Correct Option: B
Explanation:
  1.  It is a chronic granulomatous infection caused by actinomyces israelli mainly.
    1. Actinomyces are true bacteria; however, they superficially resemble resemble fungi, and hence called ray fungus. Actinomyces are positive bacteria.
    2.  Actinomycosis is also called lumpy jaw.

What is the fastest moving fraction of protein in serum when subjected to paper electrophoresis?

  1. Albumin

  2. A1-globulin

  3. B-globulin

  4. Y-globulin


Correct Option: A
Explanation:

The plasma protein and their fractions can be separated by electrophoretic method,  which depends upon electric charge of the proteins and difference in their rate of migration. Maximum mobility in electrophoresis is shown by albumin and minimum by y-globulin.

Bacteria whose pores are used to test the efficacy of moist heat sterilization is __________.

  1. clostridium tetani

  2. streptococcus faecalis

  3. bacillus stearothermophillus

  4. ureaplasma urealyticum


Correct Option: C
Explanation:

Bacillus stearo thermophilus is thermophilic and its spores are killed by an exposure of compressed steam for 12 minutes at 1210C; therefore, its spores are used to test the efficacy of moist heat sterilization (autoclave). Other means to test efficacy of moist heat sterilization are chemical indicators, autoclave tapes and thermocouples.

What is the bacteria called, which grows best at temperatures below 20oC?

  1. Mesophilic

  2. Psychrophilic

  3. Thermophilic

  4. Microaerophilic


Correct Option: B
Explanation:

Psychrophilic bacteria-bacteria that can grow best at temperatures below 20oC, e.g., soil and water saprophytes and may cause spoilage of refrigerated foods.

Negri body has been regarded as a pathognomonic finding in signifying the presence of ___________.

  1. CMV infection

  2. HSV infection

  3. Poliomyelitis

  4. Rabies


Correct Option: D
Explanation:

Negri bodies are the intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies present in the brain cells of animal suffering from rabies. Diagnosis of rabies post mortem is done by demonstration of negri bodies in the brain.

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