Which of the following are matched incorrectly?

i. Habeas Corpus – ‘To produce the body’ ii. Quo warranto – ‘Issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case’ iii. Prohibition – ‘Issued to a lower court quashing a decision or order’ iv. Mandamus – ‘Commands a person to perform a public duty’

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The writ of Habeas Corpus can be granted to enable the detainee to argue his case in person. Reason (R): Because R Vs. Secretary of State for Home Department ex parte Wynne (1992) decided so.

Article 51 A of the Constitution of India is confined to

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Code of conduct has statutory force. Reason (R): Because Article 102 of the constitution says so.

If the Government is defeated on the floor of Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence?

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The power under 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule. Reason (R): Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity Vs. Union of India decided so.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Administrative law deals with

i. the powers of constitutional authorities ii. the powers of judicial authorities iii. the powers of the administrative authorities iv. the powers of the legislative authorities

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other. Reason (R): Because Annamalai University Vs. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.

Which of the following is/are decided case(s) about possession?

1. Cartwright Vs. Green
2. R. Vs. Hudson
3. Daimler Co. Vs. Continental Tyre and Rubber Co.

Which of the following statements is correct?

In which of the following cases was it observed by the Supreme court that precedent should not be petrified nor judicial dicta divorced from the socio-economic mores of the age?

Who among the following divided the sources of Law into formal sources and material sources?

What was the principle laid down by the Supreme Court in A. K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India?

Austin described ownership as a right over determinate thing with reference to which of the following options?

Which of the following mitigating factors does not justify the award of death penalty?

According to Professor Goodhart, a ratio decidendi of a case is

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:

Assertion (A): Participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence of common intention by all the persons to be prosecuted is necessary. Reason (R): Physical presence at the time of commission of crimes is not mandatory in all cases.

Which of the following facts does not constitute the degree of knowledge for holding a person to be criminally liable for adducing false evidence?

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:

Assertion (A): Nullum Crimen is an injunction to the legislature, not to implicate all the suspected persons to be prosecuted. Reason (R): To avoid impossibility and to settle the question, the legislature must have to use administrative ruling.

Match List – I with List – II using the codes given below:

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of the codes given below, find the correct explanation:

Assertion (A): The gist of conspiracy lies in forming the scheme between two or more persons to perform the overt act. Reason (R): The alleged agreement must provide circumstantial evidence about the participation by all to establish conspiracy.

Which of the following cannot be a subject matter of theft?

What offence, if any, has been caused by the accused ‘X’ in the following facts?

‘X’ had some verbal wrangle with his wife ‘Y’ and in course of that, he gave her a blow with great force and after an interval for two hours, ‘Y’ died. Medical evidence provided the causative factor as rupture in the spleen.

The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits. Reason (R): The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.

The definition of ‘environmental pollution’ under the Environment (Protection) Act is

The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the cases of

I. death of any person II. injury to any person III. death and injury to workman IV. damage to any property

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and using the codes given below, answer the question:

Assertion (A): In criminal breach of trust, there is conversion of property held by a person in a fiduciary capacity. Reason (R): A person has a right to convert property held by him in a fiduciary capacity.

Consider the following statements regarding vested and contingent rights:

1. A vested right creates an immediate interest and is transferable and heritable.
2. A contingent right creates an immediate interest and is defeated when the required facts have not occurred.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?

Under whose specification is the recycling of plastic undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999?

For which special purpose can a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal not be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act?

“International Law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations”. Who has given this definition of Public International Law?

The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by

Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Answer using the codes given below:

I. M. C. Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath II. M. I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu III. Hinch Lal Tiwari Vs. Kamala Devi IV. Intellectual Forum, Thirupathi Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh

“The UNO has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State”. This provision has been provided under which Article of UN Charter?

Give the chronological order of the following in which they came into existence:

a. Charter of United Nations b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights c. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights d. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was held to be ‘intra-vires’ in the Constitution by the Supreme Court in the case of

There is a clear cut division between the spheres of legislature and judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which of the following propounds this doctrine?

A Muslim has given Triple Talaaq to his wife and now wants to marry her again. He can do so

Match items in List – I with items in List – II using the codes given below:

As per Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the essential conditions of a Hindu marriage are

I. Monogamy II. Mental capacity III. The groom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride of 18 years IV. No prohibited degree and sapinda relationship unless saved by custom

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find out the correct answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Legitimate expectation does not grant an absolute right to a claimant. Reason (R): Legitimate expectation protects the right of fair hearing before a decision which results in negating a promise or withdrawing an undertaking is taken.

Abuse of discretion can be inferred from which of the following circumstances?

(i) Non-application of mind (ii) Colourable exercise of power (iii) Non-observance of audi alteram partem (iv) Irrelevant considerations

In giving a child in adoption by a Hindu father, the requirement of the consent of the mother can be dispensed with in which of the following cases?

I. She has been declared to be of unsound mind by the Court of Competent Jurisdiction. II. She has finally and completely renounced the world. III. She has ceased to be a Hindu. IV. Her age is less than 18 years.

Which of the following is/are correct?

I. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court. II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it. III. A voidable marriage is a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a court of competent jurisdiction.

“A Hindu mother can be the natural guardian of her minor child during the life of the father of the child if he is not taking due care of the child.” This was held by the Supreme Court of India in the case of

Which of the following has not yet been statutorily recognised as a theory of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

Which of the following statements are wrong?

i. Human rights are created by legislation. ii. Legal duty to protect human rights is not the duty to respect them. iii. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation. iv. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone.

Match List – I with List – II in the light of Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Which of the following courts normally is/are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court(s) for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?

i. Munsiff Courts ii. Lok Adalats iii. Senior Civil Judge Court iv. Sessions Court

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The purpose of United Nations is to maintain national security and peace. Reason (R): Because Article – I of the Charter of the United Nations says so.

Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human beings. Reason (R): Change is the general rule of life. Therefore, legislatures are free to change human rights according to the changing needs and circumstances.

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality. Reason (R): Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees, 1951 in its Article 1A says so.

Right to nationality, right to marry and right to find a family are the rights under

(i) women rights (ii) social and cultural rights (iii) civil and political rights (iv) inherent rights

The power of ‘enquiry and investigation’ was given to Human Rights Commission under which of the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

i. Section 13 ii. Section 14 iii. Section 9 iv. Section 10

Which of the following are effective defences in the tort of nuisance?

I. Public good II. Prescription III. Statutory authority IV. Reasonable care

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Negligence as a tort is the breach of legal duty to take care which results in damage. Reason (R): In the tort of negligence, the law takes cognizance of carelessness only if it is supported by the legal duty to care.

In the tort of slander, it is essential that some special damage has been resulted from the use of word by the defendant. In which of the following cases may an action of slander be maintained, without proof of special damage?

I. Words imputing criminal offence to the plaintiff. II. Words imputing to the plaintiff that he has an infectious disease. III. Words prejudice the plaintiff in his office, profession, etc. IV. Words imputing unchastity to a woman.

Which of the following is not an exception to the strict liability principle laid down in Rylands Vs. Flecher?

What is the pecuniary jurisdiction of the State Commission under the Consumer Protection Act?

According to Section 12 of the Partnership Act, any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business of partnership may be decided by

Which of the following are the rights of a consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

I. Right to consumer education II. Right to seek redressal III. Access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices IV. Take goods and services free of cost

Which of the following are essentials of a contract of sale of goods?

i. Offer ii. Acceptance of offer iii. Exchange of goods for money iv. Transfer of property in goods from the seller to the buyer

Directions: Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the seller may sue the buyer for the price of the goods. Reason (R): The seller is entitled to get the contractual price.

Match the following:

Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements are correct?

In order that a person can be called a holder in due course, he must show i. that he is the drawer of the negotiable instrument ii. that he has obtained it without consideration iii. that he has obtained it before the maturity of the negotiable instrument iv. that he has obtained the negotiable instrument in good faith

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: